Multiple choice

1 . McCaskey Corporation used an activity-based costing system with the following three activity cost pools:

Activity cost pool

Total activity

Fabrication

40,000

Machine hours

Order processing

500

Others

Other

                    N/A

The other activity cost pool is used to accumulate cost of idle capacity and organization- sustaining cost.
The has providing the following data concerning it cost:

 Wages and Salaries

$469,000

Depreciation

$191,000

Occupancy

$120,000

Total

$780,000

The distribution of resource consumption across activity cost pool is given below:

 

Activity cost pools

 

 

Fabrication

Order processing

Other

Total

Wages and Salaries

20%

60%

20%

100%

Depreciation

20%

25%

55%

100%

Occupancy

20%

45%

35%

100%

 The activity rate for the fabrication activity cost pool is closed to:
a. $0.65 per machine- hour
b. $3.90 per machine-hour
c. $4.88 per machine- hour
d. 2.25 per machine-hour

2. Spendlove corporation has provided the following data from its activity-based costing system

Activity cost pool

Total cost

Total activity

Assembly

$1,282,140

61,200

Machine- hours

Processing orders

$53,958.00

20,40

Orders

Inspection

$181,350

23,40

Inspection- hour

 
The company makes 1,100 units of product S78N a year, requiring a total of 12,00 machine hours, 131 orders, and 31 inspection-hour per year. The product’s direct material cost is $50,89 per units and its direct labor cost is $20.56 per unit. The product sells of $113.30 per unit.
According to the activity-based costing system, the product margin for product S78N is : (Round your intermediate calculation to 2 decimal place).
a. $117,430.05
b. $46,035.00
c. $18,492.05
d. $15,027.55
 
3.Matt Company used activity- based costing. The company has two product. A and B. the annual production and sales of product A is 9,000 units and of product B is  6,500 units. There are three activity cost pool with total activity as follow:

 

 

Total Activity

Activity Cost Pool

Total Cost

Product A

Product B

Total

Activity 1

$36,260

250

350

700

Activity 2

$48,037

880

330

1,210

Activity 3

$120,450

850

3,530

4,380

The activity based costing cost per unit of product Ais closest to:
a. $14.33
b. $4.54
c. $7.84
d. $3.94

4. The controller Ferrence Company estimates the amount of material handing  overhead cost that should be allocated to the company’s two product using the data that are given below:

 

Wall Mirrors

Specialty Windows

Total Expected Units Produced

11,900

1,710

Total Expected Material Moves

1,190

1,610

Expected Direct Labor- Hour Per Unit

7

8

The total material handing cost for the year is expected to be $17,148.70.
If the material handing cost is allocated on the basis of direct labor- hours, how much of the total material handing cost would e allocated to the wall mirrors?
a. $9,566
b. $14,727
c. $12,894
d. $7,917

Multiple Questions Answers

1. You are doing research on the use of mobile technology such as cell phones or PDAs in patient care. Which of the following groups of subject terms would be the best for searching the subject field of a health database like Health Source: Nursing/Academic Edition on this topic?   
a) Information Technology, Patient Care 
b) Wireless communication, Medical Care 
c) Telecommunication in Medicine, Medical Care 
d) Hospitals, Medical Technology

2. You are using a chapter from an E-book in your research paper. Published in 2007, the book is called The Handbook of Mentoring at Work and is edited by Belle Rose Ragins and Kathy E. Kram. The chapter by Katherine Giscombe is on pages 549-575 in the book and is titled Advancing Women Through the Glass Ceiling With Formal Mentoring. The book is available in print, published by Sage Publications in Thousand Oaks, California, but you read it on January 12, 2011 in the UMUC database Sage Online Reference Collections, at http://www.sage-ereference.com.ezproxy.umuc.edu/hdbk_workmentor/. How would you cite it in APA 6th edition format?   
a) Giscombe, Katherine. “Advancing Women through the Glass Ceiling with Formal Mentoring.” The Handbook of Mentoring at Work. Eds. Ragins, Belle Rose, and Kathy E. Kram. Thousand Oaks, CA: Sage Publications, 2007. 549-575. Sage Online Reference Collections. Web. 12 Jan. 2011. 
b) Giscombe, K. (2007). Advancing women through the glass ceiling with formal mentoring. In B. R. Ragins & K. E. Kran, (Eds.), The Handbook of Mentoring at Work (pp. 549-575). Thousand Oaks, CA: Sage Publications. Retrieved from http://www.sage-ereference.com/
 c) Giscombe, K. (2007). Advancing women through the glass ceiling with formal mentoring. In B. R. Ragins & K. E. Kran, (Eds.), The Handbook of Mentoring at Work (pp. 549-575). Thousand Oaks, CA: Sage Publications. Retrieved from http://www.sage-ereference.com.ezproxy.umuc.edu/hdbk_workmentor/ 
d) Giscombe, K. (2007.) Advancing women through the glass ceiling with formal mentoring. In B. R. Ragins & K. E. Kran, (Eds.), The Handbook of Mentoring at Work (549-575). Thousand Oaks, CA: Sage Publications. Retrieved from http://www.sage-ereference.com/

3. If you were researching the effectiveness of Project-Based Learning in increasing student motivation, and your search using the phrase Project-Based Learning did not produce enough relevant articles, how might you change your search statement to cover the key concepts more thoroughly and find the most relevant search results?   
a) (project based learning AND motivation) OR (process writing AND engagement) AND (student* OR learner*)  
b) (project based learning OR process writing) OR (motivation OR engagement) AND (student* OR learner*) 
c) (project based learning OR process writing) AND (motivation OR engagement) AND (student* AND learner*) 
d) (project based learning OR process writing) AND (motivation OR engagement) AND (student* OR learner*)

4. Which of the following research questions is too broad for a graduate level research paper?   
a) How does culture affect communication in virtual teams at IBM Corporation? 
b) How has technology improved educational practices in the United States? 
c) How does customer service outsourcing affect retail sales of computers? 
d) How does Mexican immigration affect restaurant businesses in the United States?

Multiple Questions Answers

 

1. What separates the thinking of adolescents from that of younger children? (Points : 1) 
Adolescents can think about various possibilities.
Adolescents gain the ability to think about their senses and movement.
Adolescents begin to understand how language is used for personal benefit.
Adolescents understand the concept of conservation.


2. “The blind man and the elephant is a metaphor that shows how (Points : 1) 
psychological theories don’t make sense.
many different psychological theories contribute value.
the mind is a tabular Rasa.
knowledge must be discovered through scientific research.


3. Your instructor asks you to compare positive and negative reinforcement and explain your conclusions in class. What will you report? (Points : 1) 
Positive reinforcement increases the frequency of responses and negative reinforcement decreases the frequency of responses.
Neither positive nor negative reinforcement increases behavior without counter conditioning.
Positive and negative reinforcement decrease responses in the presence of an aversive stimulus.
Both positive and negative reinforcement increase the frequency of responses.

 


4. Tiffany feels a sense of fulfillment when she volunteers at the school down the street. She has no specific goals other than to improve her neighborhood school and enrich the lives of the children who attend it. What would Erik son say about Tiffany’s development? (Points : 1) 
Tiffany is developing wisdom by discovering what she has held back for so many years.
Tiffany is experiencing generativity by providing for those who will grow up behind her.
Tiffany will probably dwell on what “might have been” had she begun to volunteer earlier.
Tiffany will develop a profound sense of love by forming appropriate, fun relationships with the children.

469 § 1603(b)(2). Only direct ownership satisfies the statutory requirement. In issues of corporate law structure often matters.

469

 

§ 1603(b)(2). Only direct ownership satisfies the statutory requirement. In issues of corporate law structure often matters. The statutory reference to ownership of “shares” shows that Congress intended coverage to turn on formal corporate ownership. As a corporation and its shareholders are distinct entities, see, e. g., First Nat. City Bank v. Banco Para el Comercio Exterior de Cuba, 462 U. S. 611, 625, a corporate parent which owns a subsidiary’s shares does not, for that reason alone, own or have legal title to the subsidiary’s assets; and, it follows with even greater force, the parent does not own or have legal title to the subsidiary’s subsidiaries. The veil separating corporations and their shareholders may be pierced in certain exceptional circumstances, but the Dead Sea Companies refer to no authority for extending the doctrine so far that, as a categorical matter, all subsidiaries are deemed to be the same as the parent corporation. Various federal statutes refer to “direct or indirect ownership.” The absence of this language in § 1603(b) instructs the Court that Congress did not intend to disregard structural ownership rules here. That section’s “other ownership interest” phrase, when following the word “shares,” should be interpreted to refer to a type of interest other than stock ownership. Reading the phrase to refer to a state’s interest in entities further down the corporate ladder would make the specific reference to “shares” redundant. The fact that Israel exercised considerable control over the companies may not be substituted for an ownership interest, since control and ownership are distinct concepts, and it is majority ownership by a foreign state, not control, that is the benchmark of instrumentality status. Pp. 473-478.

3. Instrumentality status is determined at the time of the filing of the complaint. Construing § 1603(b)(2) so that the present tense in the provision “a majority of whose shares … is owned by a foreign state” has real significance is consistent with the longstanding principle that the Court’s jurisdiction depends upon the state of things at the time the action is brought. E. g., Keene Corp. v. United States, 508 U. S. 200, 207. The Dead Sea Companies’ attempt to compare foreign sovereign immunity with other immunities that are based on a government officer’s status at the time of the conduct giving rise to the suit is inapt because the reason for those other immunities does not apply here. Unlike those immunities, foreign sovereign immunity is not meant to avoid chilling foreign states or their instrumentalities in the conduct of their business but to give them some protection from the inconvenience of suit as a gesture of comity, Verlinden B. V. v.Central Bank of Nigeria, 461 U. S. 480, 486. Because any relationship recognized under the FSIA between the Dead Sea Companies and Israel had been severed before suit was commenced, the companies would not be entitled to in-

 


Multiple choice

Question 1 

Which of the following is NOT a correct statement?

One advantage to a Natural Rights theory of ethics is that it can provide very specific and precise moral rules to guide conduct. 

One problem with Rousseau’s Social Contract theory of ethics is that it is very difficult to determine with any exactitude what constitutes the General Will of the people. 

According to Machiavelli, Fate or Fortune rules a good part of a person’s actions, and thus a shrewd and smart person should be prepared to adapt one’s actions to circumstances imposed by Fate. 

“Soft” Determinism implies that one can make a true choice between good and bad moral alternatives. 

 

Question 2 

Consumer Products, Inc., asks its employees, many of whom are unionized, to apply the Utilitarian theory of ethics. This theory does NOT require

A choice among alternatives that will produce maximum social utility 

A determination of what individuals will be affected by an action 

An assessment of the positive and negative consequences of alternative actions on individuals affected 

The acquiring of the means of production and distribution by the workers. 

 

Question 3 

Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement?

According to Locke, people’s rights to freedom and equality exist naturally in the state of nature even before any civil government is created. 

Natural rights exist, according to Locke, but only if the rights are granted by the government to its citizens and legal residents. 

Kant would condemn Utilitarianism as an immoral ethical theory because he maintains that “the ends do not justify the means.”  

According to Locke, people have the natural right to own private property.  

.0.5 points   

 

Question 4 

Which course of action would the aggregationist view of Utilitarianism require to be taken:

The one that provides at least some good to the greatest number of people. 

The one that provides the greatest overall good to society, even if the benefit of that alternative only flows to a few people. 

The one that harms the smallest number of people. 

The one that places the greatest number of people in a better position than they were previously. 

 

Multiple choice

1. Which of the following statements is not true regarding safety custom?

A Evidence that defendant violated customary safety precautions of the relevant community is usually sufficient to get plaintiff’s case to the jury.

B A defendant who complied with all safety requirements of a statute might still be negligent.

C In many courts, plaintiff has been allowed to introduce into evidence safety manuals written by private organizations to show that defendant, in failing to follow such manuals, fell below the standard of reasonable care.

D A defendant who fails to comply with a safety custom established by a statute or ordinance may introduce evidence that the statute or ordinance is customarily violated by others in the community as evidence of the defendant’s reasonable conduct

 

2. Which of the following statements is true regarding the role of the jury in deciding unreasonableness?

A Because reasonableness is a question of fact, the jury always decides this issue.

B Because reasonableness is a question of fact, the jury always decides this issue, subject to the judge’s right to make the ultimate decision.

C Because reasonableness is a question of law, the judge always decides this issue.

D The “fixed standard of reasonableness” approach is now a firmly established legal principle.

 

3. Based on your reading of the Santiago v. First Student, Inc. case, which of the following statements is true?

A The court indicated that it disbelieved the plaintiff.

B One cannot prove unreasonable risk without establishing specific facts of conduct.

C The nature of an accident was almost always sufficient to show unreasonableness.

D Justifiable speculation is generally sufficient to establish unreasonableness.

 

4. Which of the following is not an accurate definition of breach of duty.

A An act, the nonoccurrence of which may cause damage to another.

B The defendant’s failure to meet the standard of care.

C The defendant’s failure to act as a reasonable person would have acted under the same or similar circumstances.

D The unreasonable conduct by the defendant.

 

Multiple Choice Quiz

1) Which of the following transactions would cause one asset to increase and another asset to decrease?

A. The owner invested cash in the business
b. the business paid a creditor
c. the business incurred an expense on credit
d. the business bought supplies for cash.

2) Bob purchased a new computer for the company on account. The transaction will.

a. increase computer; increase capital
b. decrease cash; increase accounts payable
c. decrease cash; increase computer
d. increase computer; increase accounts payable

3) Mary invested cash in her new business. What effect will this have?

a. increase an asset and increase a liability
b. decrease as asset and increase a liability
c. increase an asset and increase owner’s equity
d. increase as asset and decrease owner’s equity

4) Bonnie’s Baskets purchases $4,000 worth of office equipment on account. This causes

a. cash and capital to decrease
b. office equipment and accounts payable to increase
c. office equipment to decrease and accounts payable to increase
d. accounts payable to increase and capital to decrease

5) Which of the following would result if a business purchased equipment paying a 40% down payment in cash?

a. equipment would increase and cash would decrease
b. accounts payable would increase
c. since the equipment has not been paid in full, there is nothing to record
d. both and b are correct.

6) Katie’s vegetarian restaurant, with total assets of $90,000, borrows $15,000 from the bank. Which of the following is a true statement upon borrowing the money?

a. total assets are now $105,000
b. total assets are now $80,000
c. total assets are now $15,000
d. total assets are now $75,000

7) Which of the following will be recorded in the owner’s equity column as an increase?

a. an exchange of assets
b. the purchase of an asset on credit
c. an investment by the owner
d. a withdrawal by the owner

8) How does the purchase of office equipment on account affect the accounting equatiion?

a. assets increase; liabilities decrease
b. assets increase; owner’s equity increases
c. assets increase; liabilities increase
d. liabilites increase; owner’s equity decreases

9) If total liabilities are $1,000 and total assets are $8,000, owner’s equity must be.

a. $7,000
b. $3,000
c.$10,000
d. $13,000

Multiple choice

1. For 2011, the Butternut Corporation has net income on its books of $75,000, including the following items:
Net capital losses $10,000 
Federal income tax expense 22,250 
Federal tax depreciation exceeds the depreciation deducted on the books by $7,250. What is the corporation’s taxable income?




A) $97,250 


B) $75,000 


C) $85,000 


D) $107,250 


E) $100,000 




 

2. Ted forms the Nutshell Corporation during the 2011 tax year. To form the corporation, Ted transfers assets having a fair market value of $550,000 to Nutshell Corporation for 100 percent of the corporation’s stock. Ted’s adjusted basis in the assets transferred was $250,000 and Nutshell Corporation assumed a $175,000 mortgage on the assets. If the fair market value of the stock received by Ted is $375,000, what is his basis in the stock received from the corporation?



A) $75,000 


B) $425,000 


C) $550,000 


D) $375,000 


 


3.The partnership of Nixon and Whittier realized the following items of income during the year ended December 31, 2011:

Net income from operations $93,000 
Dividends from domestic corporations 5,000 
Interest on corporate bonds 2,000 
Net long-term capital gains 15,000 
Net short-term capital gains 11,000 

Both of the partners are on a calendar year basis. What is the total income which should be reported as ordinary income from business activities of the partnership for 2011?


A) $126,000 


B) $74,000 


C) $60,000 


D) $93,000 


E) $100,000 


F) $250,000 



 

4. On September 30, 2011, Amber was admitted to partnership in the firm of Waves and Grain. Her contribution to capital consisted of 1,000 shares of stock in Biotech Corporation, which she bought in 2002 for $15,000 and which had a fair market value of $45,000 on September 30, 2011. Amber’s interest in the partnership’s capital and profits is 40 percent. On September 30, 2011, the fair market value of the partnership’s net assets (after Amber was admitted) was $112,500, and profit for the 3 months ended December 31, 2011 was $6,000. What is Amber’s taxable gain in 2011 on the exchange of stock for her partnership interest?


A) $12,000 


B) $30,000 long-term capital gain 


C) $30,000 ordinary income 


D) $2,400 


E) $0 gain or loss 



 

Multiple choice

Question 1

Social engineering attacks: 

A. are an example of technical attacks requiring software or systems knowledge. 

B. are a combination of technical and nontechnical attacks. 

C. take advantage of Web 2.0 applications like social networking sites, blogs, wikis and RSS feeds. 

D. are no longer considered to be serious Internet threats due to the increased security of MySpace, LinkedIn, and YouTube. 

 

Question 2

A. a piece of code in a worm that spreads rapidly and exploits some known vulnerability. 

B. a piece of software code that inserts itself into a host or operating system to launch DOS attacks. 

C. DOS attacks. 

D. a collection of a few hundreds of thousands of hijacked Internet computers that have been set up to forward traffic, including spam and viruses, to other computers on the Internet. 

 

Question 3

Access to a network ought to be based on: 

A. the policy of least privilege where access to network resources are blocked and permitted only when needed to conduct business. 

B. the policy of acceptable use where access is restricted by the firewall. 

C. role-specific security protocols where access is limited by a user’s level of trust. 

D. the policy of need-to-know where access by all non-employees is blocked. 

 

Question 4

The advantages of virtual private networks (VPN) for data communications include all of the following EXCEPT: 

A. they are less expensive than private leased lines because they use the public Internet to carry information. 

B. they ensure the confidentiality and integrity of the data transmitted over the Internet without requiring encyption. 

C. they can reduce communication costs dramatically because VPN equipment is cheaper than other remote solutions. 

D. remote users can use broadband connections rather than make long distance calls to access an organization’s private network. 

 

Multiple choice

Question 1 

Which of the following statements is true about referring to visuals in the text of a document? 

A. In general, you should refer to visuals in the text of the document.

B. In general, the audience will check the visual whether you refer to it in the text or not.

C. Textual references should never be placed in parenthetical references.

D. If you embed a textual reference in a sentence, the reader will not pay attention to it.

 

 

Question 2 

Which of the following statements about the placement of visuals is true? 

A. Visuals that readers need to refer to repeatedly should be placed at the front of the document.

B. Always place visuals on the right side of the page; people tend not to look at visuals placed on the left side of a page.

C. If a visual requires an entire page in a document printed only on one side of the paper, place the visual on the page following the text reference.

D. If a formal report has more than two visuals, include a list of figures or a list of tables at the beginning of the document.

 

 

Question 3 

Symbols used by most countries in which there is a yellow triangle with a black band and a black graphic on it: 

A. are used to give directions to travelers.

B. prohibit whatever is written on the sign.

C. signal a safety precaution, such as “ear protection necessary.”

D. warn about whatever is displayed in the triangle.

 

 

Question 4 

Which of the following statements is true about scatter graphs? 

A. Because scatter graphs are relatively easy to interpret, their statistical relevance does not have to be discussed in the text.

B. If the dots are randomly scattered, they have a high degree of correlation.

C. If the diagonal runs from the upper left to the lower right, the correlation is positive.

D. Because interpreting scatter graphs is often difficult, their use is generally limited to professional and expert audiences.