ACC 290 Final Exam

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This document of  ACC 290 Final Exam includes

Part I Questions

 

1) Which financial statement is used to determine cash generated from operations?

A. Income statement

B. Statement of operations

C. Statement of cash flows

D. Retained earnings statement

2) In terms of sequence, in what order must the four basic financial statements be prepared?

A. Balance sheet, income statement, statement of cash flows, and capital statement

B. Income statement, capital statement, statement of cash flows, and balance sheet

C. Balance sheet, capital statement, statement of cash flows, and income statement

D. Income statement, capital statement, balance sheet, and statement of cash flows

3) In classifying transactions, which of the following is true in regard to assets?

A. Normal balances and increases are debits.

B. Normal balances and decreases are credits.

C. Normal balances can either be debits or credits for assets.

D. Normal balances are debits and increases can be debits or credits.

4) An increase in an expense account must be

A. debited

B. credited

C. either debited or credited, depending on the circumstances

D. capitalized

5) ABC Corporation issues 100 shares of $1 par common stock at $5 per share, which of the following is the correct journal entry?

A. Cash $100     Common Stock $100

B. Cash $500     Common Stock $500

C. Cash $500     Paid-in Capital, Excess of Par $400      Common Stock $100

D. Cash $100     Paid-in Capital, Excess of Par $400      Common Stock $500

 

6) In the first month of operations, the total of the debit entries to the cash account amounted to $1,400 and the total of the credit entries to the cash account amounted to $600. The cash account has a

A. $600 credit balance

B. $1,400 debit balance

C. $800 debit balance

D. $800 credit balance

 

7) Which ledger contains control accounts?

A. Accounts receivable subsidiary ledger

B. General ledger

C. Accounts payable subsidiary ledger

D. General revenue and expense ledger

 

8) Smith is a customer of ABC Corporation. Smith typically purchases merchandise from ABC on account. Which ledger would ABC use to keep track of the details of Smith’s account?

A. Accounts receivable subsidiary ledger

B. Accounts receivable control ledger

C. General ledger

D. Accounts payable subsidiary ledger

 

9) Under the cash basis of accounting,

A. revenue is recognized when services are performed

B. expenses are matched with the revenue that is produced

C. cash must be received before revenue is recognized

D. a promise to pay is sufficient to recognize revenue

 

10) Under the accrual basis of accounting,

A. cash must be received before revenue is recognized

B. net income is calculated by matching cash outflows against cash inflows

C. events that change a company’s financial statements are recognized in the period they occur rather than in the period in which the cash is paid or received

D. the ledger accounts must be adjusted to reflect a cash basis of accounting before financial statements are prepared under generally accepted accounting principles

 

11) The Vintage Laundry Company purchased $6,500 worth of laundry supplies on June 2 and recorded the purchase as an asset. On June 30, an inventory of the laundry supplies indicated only $2,000 on hand. The adjusting entry that should be made by the company on June 30 is

A. debit Laundry Expense, $2,000; credit Laundry Expense $2,000

B. debit Laundry Expense, $4,500; credit Laundry Supplies Expense, $4,500

C. debit Laundry Supplies, $2,000; credit Laundry Supplies Expense, $2,000

D. debit Laundry Supplies Expense, $4,500; credit Laundry Supplies, $4,500

 

12) Greese Company purchased office supplies costing $4,000 and debited Office Supplies for the full amount. At the end of the accounting period, a physical count  of office supplies revealed $1,100 still on hand. The appropriate adjusting journal entry to be made at the end of the period would be

A. debit Office Supplies Expense, $1,100; credit Office Supplies, $1,100

B. debit Office Supplies, $2,900; credit Office Supplies Expense, $2,900

C. debit Office Supplies Expense, $2,900; credit Office Supplies, $2,900

D. debit Office Supplies, $1,100; credit Office Supplies Expense, $1,100

 

13) Based on the account balance below, what is the total of the debit and credit  columns of the adjusted trial balance?

Service revenue $3,300 Equipment $6,400

Cash 1,525 Prepaid insurance 1,225

Unearned revenue 5,320 Depreciation expense 640

Salary 1,050 Accum. depreciation 1,280

Common stock 390 Retained earnings 550

A. $9,150

B. $10,840

C. $9,560

D. $10,430

 

14) An adjusted trial balance

A. is prepared after the financial statements are completed

B. proves the equality of the total debit balances and total credit balances of ledger accounts after all adjustments have been made

C. is a required financial statement under generally accepted accounting principles

D. cannot be used to prepare financial statements

 

15) Given the following adjusted trial balance, net income for the year is:

Debit Credit

Cash $781

Accounts receivable 1,049

Inventory 1,562

Prepaid rent 43

Property, plant & equipment 150

Accumulated depreciation 26

Accounts payable 41

Unearned revenue 61

Common stock 103

Retained earnings 3,305

Service revenue 134

Interest revenue 28

Salary expense 80

Travel expense 33

Total $3,698 $3,698

A. $248

B. $135

C. $162

D. $49

 

16) Given the following adjusted trial balance, what will be the totals for the debit and credit columns of the post-closing trial balance?

Debit Credit

Cash $1,562

Accounts receivable 2,098

Inventory 3,124

Prepaid rent 86

Property, plant, & equipment 300

Accumulated depreciation $52

Accounts payable 82

Unearned revenue 172

Common stock 206

Retained earnings 6,610

Service revenue 218

Interest revenue 56

Salary expense 160

Travel expense 66

Totals $7,396 $7,396

A. $7,396

B. $7,118

C. $7,334

D. $7,170

 

17) Given the following adjusted trial balance:

Debit Credit

Cash $781

Accounts receivable 1,049

Inventory 1,562

Prepaid rent 43

Property, plant & equipment 150

Accumulated depreciation $26

Accounts payable 41

Unearned revenue 61

Common stock 103

Retained earnings 3,305

Service revenue 134

Interest revenue 28

Salary expense 80

Travel expense 33

Total $3,698 $3,698

After closing entries have been posted, the balance in retained earnings will be

A. $3,256

B. $3,170

C. $3,440

D. $3,354

 

18) Net income is recorded on the work sheet under the

A. debit column of the adjusted trial balance and the credit column of retained earnings

B. debit column of the income statement and the credit column of the balance sheet

C. credit column of the adjusted trial balance and the debit column of retained earnings

D. credit column of the income statement and the debit column of the balance sheet

 

19) At the beginning of the year, Uptown Athletic had an inventory of $400,000.

During the year, the company purchased goods costing $1,500,000. If Uptown  

Athletic reported ending inventory of $600,000 and sales of $2,000,000, their cost of goods sold and gross profit rate would be

A. $900,000 and 65%

B. $1,300,000 and 35%

C. $900,000 and 35%

D. $1,300,000 and 65%

 

20) During the year, Sarah’s Pet Shop’s merchandise inventory decreased by $30,000. If the company’s cost of goods sold for the y ear was $450,000, purchases would have been

A. $480,000

B. $420,000

C. $390,000

D. Insufficient data to determine

 

21) At the beginning of the year, Wildcat Athletic had an inventory of $200,000.

During the year, the company purchased goods costing $700,000. If Wildcat

Athletic reported ending inventory of $300,000 and sales of $1,000,000, their cost of goods sold and gross profit rate would be

A. $400,000 and 60%

B. $600,000 and 40%

C. $400,000 and 40%

D. $600,000 and 60%

 

22) The entry to record of sale of $900 with terms of 2/10, n/30 will include a

A. debit to Sales Discount for $18

B. debit to Sales Revenue for $882

C. credit to Accounts Receivable for $900

D. credit to Sales Revenue for $900

 

23) Dobler Company uses a periodic inventory system. Details for the inventory account for the

Units Per unit price Total

Balance, 1/1/2012 200 $5.00 $1,000

Purchase, 1/15/2012 100 5.3 530

Purchase, 1/28/2012 100 5.5 550

An end of the month (1/31/2012), inventory showed that 140 units were on hand. If the company uses LIFO, what is the value of the ending inventory?

A. $737

B. $700

C. $762

D. $1,380

  

24) The difference between ending inventory using LIFO and ending inventory using FIFO is referred to as

A. FIFO reserve

B. inventory reserve

C. LIFO reserve

D. periodic reserve

25) A consistent application of an inventory costing method enhances

A. conservatism

B. accuracy

C. comparability

D. efficiency

26) The accountant at Patton Company has determined that income before income taxes amounted to $11,000 using the FIFO costing assumption. If the income tax rate is 30% and the amount of income taxes paid would be $300 greater if the LIFO assumption were used, what would be the amount of income before taxes under the LIFO assumption?

A. $11,300

B. $12,000

C. $10,000

D. $10,700

27) A very small company would have the most difficulty in implementing which of the following internal control activities?

A. Separation of duties

B. Limited access to assets

C. Periodic independent verification

D. Sound personnel procedures      

28) A system of internal control

A. is infallible

B. can be rendered ineffective by employee collusion

C. invariably will have costs exceeding benefits

D. is premised on the concept of absolute assurance

29) The custodian of a company asset should

A. have access to the accounting record for that asset

B. be someone outside the company

C. not have access to the accounting record for that asset

D. be an accountant

30) The Sarbanes Oxley Act (2002) applies to

A. U.S. companies but not international companies

B. international companies but not U.S. companies

C. U.S. and Canadian companies but not other international companies

D. U.S. and international companies

 

  

LDR 531 Final Exam 2

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LDR 531 Final Exam 2

 

 

1. What are the three primary determinants of behavior on which organizational behavior focuses?

A. profit structure, organizational complexity, job satisfaction

B. individuals, profit structure, and job satisfaction

C. individuals, groups, and job satisfaction

D. groups, structure, and profit structure

E. individuals, groups, and structure

 

2. Which behavioral science discipline is most focused on understanding individual behavior?

A. sociology

B. social psychology

C. psychology

D. anthropology

E. organizational behavior

 

3. When the team he supports wins the World Cup, Detleb feels a surge of joy, which turns into a feeling of satisfaction that lasts for days. What is one of the reasons that the feeling of satisfaction might be categorized as a mood and not an emotion?

A. It has a lengthy duration

B. It is not the result of something that Detleb himself has done.

C. It is brought about by a specific event.

D. It is a positive feeling.

E. It is a very strong feeling.

 

4. Which of the following statements about personality is correct?

A. Personality is an aggregate whole.

B. Personality is the primary source of emotions in most people.

C. Personality is a part of a person.

D. Personality is for the most part comprised of traits that cannot be measured.

E. Personality is always stable

 

5. What does the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator classification of E or I stand for?

 

A. Extroverted or introverted

B. Sane or reflective

C. Emotional or introverted

D. Emotional or intuitive

E. Extroverted or intuitive

 

6. Which of the following is not generally true?

A. Satisfaction is the major determinant of a worker’s OCB

B. Enterprises with a greater percentage of satisfied workers are more effective than those with a smaller percentage of satisfied workers.

C. Productive workers are satisfied workers.

D. Satisfaction comes down to fairness of outcomes, treatments, or procedures.

E. Satisfied workers are productive workers.

 

 

 

 7. ________ results in a level of performance that is greater than the sum of the individual input.

A. Energy

B. Inversion

C. Enthusiasm

D. Initiative

E. Synergy

 

8. Which of the following helps explain the current popularity of teams?

A. Teams promote socialization.

B. Teams are easier to manage.

C. Teams are less expensive.

D. Teams are a way to better utilize employee talents.

E. Teams are very efficient.

 

9. What sort of group is defined by the organization’s structure?

A. Interest

B. Informal

C. Friendship

D. Task

E. Formal

 

10. What will happen if group cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low?

A. Productivity will be low.

B. Internal conflict will be high.

C. Productivity will be high

D. Internal conflict will be low

E. It will have little effect on internal conflict or productivity.

 

11. Which of the following was the major finding of Zimbardo’s simulated prison experiment?

A. An individual’s emotions and the behavioral responses to those emotions are congruent.

B. Status differences between groups will always result in conflict between those groups.

C. Individuals can rapidly assimilate new roles very different from their inherent personalities.

D. Group cohesiveness is so important that individuals will restrain their natural impulses to remain part of the group.

E. When given the opportunity, people will tend to act in an oppressive manner to those around them.

 

12. Which theory differentiates leaders from nonleaders by focusing on personal qualities and characteristics?

A. Contingency theory

B. Fiedler’s perspective

C. LPC

D. Characteristic theory

E. Trait theory

 

13. Which of the following statements regarding leadership is true?

A. All leaders are hierarchically superior to followers.

B. All leaders are managers.

C. All managers are leaders.

D. Formal rights enable managers to lead effectively.

E. Nonsanctioned leadership is as important as or more important than formal influence

14. Leadership is best defined as __________.

A.   coordinating and staffing the organization and handling day-to-day problems

B.   the ability to influence a group in goal achievement

C.   implementing the vision and strategy provided by management

D.   keeping order and consistency in the midst of change

E.   not a relevant variable in modern organizations

 

 15. Which model represents the theory that effective group performance depends on the proper match between a leader’s style and the degree to which the situation gives control to the leader?

A. Leader-Member Exchange Model

B. Fiedler’s Contingency Model

C. Hersey and Blanchard’s Situational Leadership Model

D. Vroom and Yetton’s Leader-Participation Model

E. None of the above

 

16. Three situational criteria identified in the Fiedler model are __________

A. task structure, leadership ability, and group conflict

B. job requirements, position power, and leadership ability

C. leader-member relations, task structure, and position power

D. charisma, influence, and leader-member relations

E. emotional intelligence, group orientation, and employee status

 

17. The leadership behaviors identified by the path-goal theory are __________.

A. directive, participative, supportive, and laissez-faire

B. supportive, employee-oriented, laissez-faire, and participative

C. participative, achievement-oriented, directive, and supportive

D. achievement-oriented, supportive, humanistic, and directive

E. affective, cognitive, and behavioral

 

18. According to Hersey and Blanchard, readiness encompasses the __________.

A. degree of confidence, trust, and respect members have in their leader

B. amount of influence a leader has over variables such as hiring, firing, and salaries

C. level of morale and satisfaction of the employees

D. ability and willingness of the followers to accomplish a task

E. all of the above

 

19. Which path-goal leadership style leads to greater satisfaction when tasks are ambiguous or stressful?

A. Mixed

B. Participative

C. Reactive

D. Supportive

E. Directive

 

20. Which of the following is not a primary force for change in organizations?

A. Social trends

B. Decreasing skill sets

C. The nature of the workforce

D. Economic shocks

E. Technology

 

 

21. An example of change in competition is __________.

A. increased interest in urban living

B. Iraq–U.S. war

C. a decrease in interest rates

D. collapse of Enron Corporation

E. growth of e-commerce

 

22. The application of direct threats or force on resisters is called __________.

A. coercion

B. manipulation

C. destruction

D. cooptation

E. exploitation

 

23. Which tactic to overcome resistance to change is a relatively easy way to gain the support of adversaries, but may backfire if the targets become aware of the tactic?

A. Coercion

B. Manipulation

C. Cooperation

D. Conciliation

E. Negotiation

 

24. Who developed a three-step model for change that included unfreezing, movement, and refreezing?

A. Lawrence Summers

B. Douglas Surber

C. Kurt Lewin

D. David McClelland

E.  John Kotter

 

25. The basis by which jobs are grouped together is termed __________.

A. centralization

B. specialization

C. departmentalization

D. bureaucracy

E. social clustering

 

26. In the late 1940s, most manufacturing jobs in industrialized countries were being done with high _________.

A. structuralization

B. work specialization

C. generalized structure

D. decentralization

E. departmentalization

 

27. For much of the first half of the 20th century, managers viewed work specialization as __________.

A. difficult to implement without automation technology

B. an unending source of increased productivity

C. an effective solution to over-centralization

D. a frustrating cause of reduced product output

E. a means to encourage employee satisfaction

28. Which of the following is not a characteristic of organizational culture?

A. Team orientation

B. Formality orientation

C. Outcome orientation

D. Innovation

E. Attention to detail

 

29. __________ is a shared system of meaning held by the organization’s members that distinguishes the organization from other organizations.

A. Formalization

B. Corporate image

C. Socialization

D. Institutionalization

E. Organizational culture

 

30. Leaders achieve goals, and power is __________.

A. a goal in and of itself

B. a strong influence on leaders’ goals

C. a means of achieving goals

D. defined by leaders’ hopes and aspirations

E. usually used by poor leaders

 

31. The most important aspect of power is probably that it __________.

A. is counterproductive

B. involves control

C. tends to corrupt people

D. is needed to get things done in an organization

 

E. is a function of dependency

MAT 540 Week 5 Quiz 3

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1. The terms in the objective function or constraints are not additive.    TRUE/ FALSE

 

2. A feasible solution violates at least one of the constraints.          TRUE/ FALSE

 

3. Which of the following could not be a linear programming problem constraint?

a. 1A + 2B

 b. 1A + 2B = 3

 c. 1A + 2B > 3

 d. 1A + 2B < 3

 

4. In a linear programming problem, a valid objective function can be represented as

A) Max Z = 5xy

B) Max Z 5x2 + 2y2

C) Max 3x + 3y + 1/3z

D) Min (x1 + x2) / x3

 

5. Non-negativity constraints restrict the decision variables to negative values.    TRUE/ FALSE

 

6. A graphical solution is limited to linear programming problems with ___ decision variables

2

 

7. A constraint is a linear relationship representing a restriction on decision making.

   TRUE/ FALSE

 

8. Linear programming is a model consisting of linear relationships representing a firm’s decisions given an objective and resource constraints.        TRUE/ FALSE

 

9. Non-negativity constraints

A) restrict the decision variables to zero.

B) restrict the decision variables to positive values

C) restrict the decision variables to negative values

D) do not restrict the sign of the decision variable.

E) both A and B

 

 

10. Decision models are mathematical symbols representing levels of activity.  TRUE/ FALSE

 

11. Which of the following could be a linear programming objective function?

A) Z = 1A + 2BC + 3D

B) Z = 1A + 2B + 3C + 4D

C) Z = 1A + 2B / C + 3D

D) Z = 1A + 2B2 + 3D

E) all of the above

 

12. Decision variables

A) measure the objective function

B) measure how much or how many items to produce, purchase, hire, etc.

C) always exist for each constraint

D) measure the values of each constraint

 

13. A linear programming model consists of decision variables, constraints, but no objective function.   TRUE/ FALSE

 

14. The region which satisfies all of the constraints in a graphical linear programming problem is called the                  

A) region of optimality

B) feasible solution space

C) region of non-negativity

D) optimal solution space

 

15. The _______________ property of linear programming models indicates that the decision variables cannot be restricted to integer values and can take on any fractional value.

A) linearity

B) additive

C) divisibility

D) certainty

E) proportionality

 

16. The production manager for the Coory soft drink company is considering the production of 2 kinds of soft drinks: regular and diet. Two of the limited resources are production time (8 hours = 480 minutes per day) and syrup limited to 675 gallons per day. To produce a regular case requires 2 minutes and 5 gallons of syrup, while a diet case needs 4 minutes and 3 gallons of syrup. Profits for regular soft drink are $3.00 per case and profits for diet soft drink are $2.00 per case. What is the time constraint?

 A) 2R + 5D ≤ 480

B) 2D + 4R ≤ 480

C) 2R + 3D ≤ 480

D) 3R + 2D ≤ 480

E) 2R + 4D ≤ 480

 

17. Cully furniture buys 2 products for resale: big shelves (B) and medium shelves (M). Each big shelf costs $500 and requires 100 cubic feet of storage space, and each medium shelf costs $300 and requires 90 cubic feet of storage space. The company has $75000 to invest in shelves this week, and the warehouse has 18000 cubic feet available for storage. Profit for each big shelf is $300 and for each medium shelf is $150. What is the objective function?

Z = $300B + $150M

A) MAX Z = $300B + $100 M

B) MAX Z = $300M + $150 B

C) MAX Z = $300B + $150 M

D) MAX Z = $300B + $500 M

E) MAX Z = $500B + $300 M

 

18. In a linear programming model, the numberof constraints must be less than the number of decision variables.            TRUE/ FALSE

 

19. Proportionality means the slope of a constraint or objective function line is not constant.  TRUE/ FALSE

 

 

20. The objective function is a linear relationship reflecting the objective of an operation.       TRUE/ FALSE

LDR 531 Final Exam

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LDR 531 Final Exam

 

 

1) Which of the following is best defined as a consciously coordinated social unit, composed of two or more people, which functions on a relatively continuous basis to achieve a common goal or set of goals?

                a.   party

                b.   unit

                c.   team

                d.   community

                e.   organization

 

2) Over the past 2 decades, business schools have added required courses on organizational design to many of their curricula. Why have they done this?

                a.   Managers no longer need technical skills in subjects such as economics and accounting to succeed.

                b.   There is an increased emphasis in controlling employee behavior in the workplace.

                c.   Managers need to understand human behavior if they are to be effective.

                d.   These skills enable managers to effectively lead human resources departments.

                e.   A manager with good people skills can help create a pleasant workplace.

 

3) Robert Katz identified three essential skills that managers must have to reach their goals. What are these skills?

                a.   technical, decisional and interpersonal

                b.   technical, human, and conceptual

                c.   interpersonal, informational and decisional

                d.   conceptual, communication and networking

                e.   human, informational and communication

 

4) __________ is a field of study that investigates the effect that individuals, groups, and structures have on behavior within organizations for the purpose of applying such knowledge toward improving an organization’s effectiveness.

a.     Organizational development

b.     Human Resources Management

c.     Organizational behavior

d.     People management

e.        Corporate strategy

 

5) What do the fundamental consistencies underlying the behavior of all individuals enable researchers to do?

                a.   observe human behavior

                b.   systematize human behavior

                c.   research human behavior

                d.   predict human behavior

                e.   detect human behavior

 

6) Which of the following is a generic term that covers a broad range of feelings that people experience?

a.     Affect 

b.     emotions

c.     moods

d.     emotional labor

e.     cognition

 

7) What term is used for intense feelings that are directed at someone or something?

a.     affect

b.     cognition

c.     moods

d.     thoughts

e.     emotions  

8) If personality characteristics were completely dictated by __________, they would be fixed at

birth and no amount of experience could alter them.

a.     job satisfaction

b.     heredity

c.     environment

d.     situations

e.     religion

 

9) Which of the following are classifications on the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator?

                a.   extroverted/introverted

                b.   sensing/intuitive

                c.   perceiving/judging

                d.   independent/dependent

                e.   thinking/feeling

 

10) Maria is dissatisfied with the way that her manager treats her. She has quit her job and found a new position with another firm. How has she expressed her dissatisfaction?

                a.   exit

                b.   voice

                c.   loyalty

                d.   neglect

                e.   social voice

 

11) You quietly continue to do your work when you know things will not improve. This is what type of response to dissatisfaction?

                a.   exit

                b.   voice

                c.   loyalty

                d.   neglect

                e.   social voice

 

12) A group

a.  generates positive synergy through coordinated effort

                b.  generates greater outputs with no increase in inputs

                c.  is two or more individuals interacting and interdependent

                d.  engages in collective work that requires joint effort

 

13) __________ results in a level of performance that is greater than the sum of the individual input.

                a.   Synergy

                b.   Enthusiasm

                c.   Energy

                d.   Initiative

                e.   Inversion

 

14) What happens in the second stage of Tuckman’s five stage model of group development?

a. Close relationships are developed.

 b. The group demonstrates cohesiveness.

 c. Intragroup conflict often occurs.

 d. Groups disband.

 

15) Zach is devout and very active in his church. He is also a very dedicated employee. His manager offers him a promotion, but the new role will require him to work Sundays. Zach would like the promotion, but realizes that it would force him to miss some church activities. It is likely that Zach is experiencing which of the following:

                a.   role conflict

                b.   role expectation

                c.   role perception

                d.   psychological conflict

16) Which role focuses on bringing about order and consistency by drawing up formal plans?

a.     leadership

b.     management

c.     task structure

d.     initiating structure

e.     none of the above

 

17) Which statement regarding leadership is true?

a.     All leaders are managers.

b.     Formal rights enable managers to lead effectively.

c.     All managers are leaders.

d.     All leaders are hierarchically superior to followers.

e.     Nonsanctioned leadership is as important as or more important than formal influence.

 

18) What are three situational criteria identified in the Fiedler model?

                a.   job requirements, position power, and leadership ability

                b.   charisma, influence, and leader-member relations

                c.   leader-member relations, task structure, and position power

                d.   task structure, leadership ability, and group conflict

                e.   emotional intelligence, group orientation, and employee status

 

19) The reconceptualization of the contingency model by Garcia and Fiedler is called _____ theory.

                a.   situational

                b.   cognitive resource

                c.   evaluative

                d.   leadership recognition

                e.   cognitive dissonance

 

20) Which path-goal leadership style leads to greater satisfaction when tasks are ambiguous or stressful?

a.     directive

b.     supportive

c.     participative

d.     mixed

e.     reactive

 

21) According the Path-Goal Theory, what leader is friendly and shows concern for the needs of followers?

a.     the achievement-oriented leader

b.     the directive leader

c.     the laissez-faire leader

d.     the participative leader

e.     the supportive leader

 

22) Phrases such as “more cultural diversity,” “many new entrants with inadequate skills,” and “increase in professionals” are all examples of what force for change?

                a.            technology

                b.            world politics

                c.             nature of the work force

                d.            social trends

 

23) What is a goal of planned change?

                a.     to change the forces of change

                b.     to alter the agents of change

                c.     to change employees’ responsibilities

                d.     to improve the ability to adapt to the environment

                e.     to alter the employees’ environment

 

24) Using covert influence to overcome resistance to change is called what?

                a.     negotiation

                b.     cooptation

                c.     education

                d.     coercion

                e.     manipulation

 

25) If individuals resisting change are included in making change decisions in an attempt to gain their support, what is this approach is called?

                a.     cooptation

                b.     exploitation

                c.     manipulation

                d.     coercion

                e.     education

 

26) Which of the following is a characteristic of organizational control?

a. Formality orientation

                b. Decision orientation

                c. Team orientation

                d. Managerial orientation

 

27) What term describes the key characteristic of organizational control that addresses the degree to which employees are expected to exhibit precision?

                a.     accuracy orientation

                b.     accountability

                c.     attention to detail

                d.     stability

                e.     reactivity

 

28) Power is

a. a means for leaders to achieve goals

                b. defined by leaders’ hopes and aspirations

                c. a goal in and of itself

                d. not an influence on leaders’ goals

 

29) Leaders achieve goals, and power is

a. defined by leaders’ hopes and aspirations

b. usually used by poor leaders

c. a means of achieving goals

d. a goal in and of itself

e. a strong influence on leaders’ goals

 

30) The most important aspect of power is probably that it _____.

                a.     is needed to get things done in an organization

                b.     is a function of dependency

                c.     tends to corrupt people

                d.     is counterproductive

                e.     involves control

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

can you do a 5 page paper

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Assignment 1: Implications of Health Economic Concepts for Healthcare

Due Week 4 and worth 200 points

Select at least five (5) economic concepts covered in the first four weeks’ readings, and discuss the primary manner in which these concepts impact the world of health care economics. Some examples of selected concepts are health demand and supply, elasticity, resources, health measures, and costs.

Write a four to six (4-6) page paper in which you:

  1. Assess the value of healthcare professionals and decision makers understanding the discipline of health economics.
  2. Defend or critique the importance of considering the complex nature of health and healthcare when examining the economic principles related to healthcare delivery.
  3. Analyze the primary potential benefits of learning about health economics related to government involvement in healthcare economics, financing, and delivery.
  4. Analyze the main potential benefits of learning about health economics related to private sector government involvement in healthcare economics, financing, and delivery.
  5. Use at least five (5) current references. Three of these references must be from current peer-reviewed sources to support and substantiate your comments and perspectives. 

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

  • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Explain how selected economic principles apply to the health care market and the provisions of health care services.
  • Analyze the factors that are influencing the demand and supply of health care services in the U.S.
  • Assess current economic trends that influence the cost, quality, and access to care.
  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in health economics.
  • Write clearly and concisely about health economics using proper writing mechanics.

MGT 350 Final Exam

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1) Bill Simmons is the manager of a small restaurant and must decide how much money he owes his suppliers. The best way for Bill to approach this as a critical thinker is to

                A.  collect and analyze the evidence

 

                B.  identify opportunities and obstacles

 

                C.  understand different perspectives on the issue

               

D.  weigh the consequences of this decision

 

               

 

2) Critical thinking is very important in making decisions that impact an organization’s growth and survival. Which of the following traits of a critical thinker is essential in this process?

                A.  Intellectual integrity

 

                B.  Intellectual empathy

 

                C.  Intellectual perseverance

 

                D.  Intellectual courage

 

               

 

3) When faced with a decision opportunity, a critical thinker must sort through a variety of readily apparent symptoms in order to focus on important considerations that may be hidden. Based on the decision steps model, when framing a problem a helpful step is to

                A.  Determine root causes

 

                B.  Measure the decision

 

                C.  Frame alternatives

 

                D.  Evaluate effects of the problem

               

 

4) In the stages of development of critical thinking, which of the following types of thinking entails exploring the foundation of our thinking and discover how we have come to think and believe we do?

                A.  Beginning thinker

 

                B.  Practical thinker

 

                C.  Advanced thinker

 

                D.  Master thinker

 

               

 

5) One way for a leader to develop alternative perspectives for decision making is to:

                A.  increase the use of the logical thinking style

 

                B.  increase the homogeneity of his or her team

 

                C.  assign the role of devil’s advocate for meetings

 

                D.  apply past decision successes to current decision opportunities

               

 

6) The outcome of the process of framing the problem includes:

                A.  a list of potential alternative courses of action

 

                B.  a list of criteria, goals, and objectives for a decision

 

                C.  a timeline for decision implementation

 

                D.  an assessment of resources needed to execute a decision

               

 

7) A form of critical thinking is fair-minded, persuasive thinking. When engaging in problem formulation and identification with a group, the fair minded persuader would:

                A.  communicate only that information which supports the desired decision

 

                B.  avoid all affective appeals

 

                C.  emphasizes affective appeals over data and reason

 

                D.  acknowledges the difficulty that his or her position creates for the audience

               

 

8) Of the decision styles listed below, which one should be used for a non-urgent, yet critical and unusual problem affecting multiple stakeholders?

                A.  Autocratic

 

                B.  Participative

 

                C.  Democratic

 

                D.  Programmed decision making

               

 

9) Urgent crisis conditions might call for a decision making style that is

                A.  democratic

 

                B.  consensus

 

                C.  autocratic

 

                D.  collaborative

 

               

 

10) A manager may properly choose to ignore a problem

                A.  when the costs of doing nothing are less than the cost of addressing the problem

               

B.  because of a bias against change

 

                C.  when the problem is surfaced through a positive trigger point

 

                D.  when a Pareto chart has properly clarified the causes of a problem

 

               

 

11) ____________ is based on the concept that 80% of a project’s goal can be achieved by doing 20% of the work or that 80% of the problems are due to 20% of causes.

                A.  Plus/Minus Implications (PMI)

 

                B.  Force Field Analysis

 

                C.  Criteria Matrix

 

                D.  Pareto Analysis

 

               

 

12) For urgent decisions, which approach may be the most efficient and effective use of the manager’s time when there are other critical competing priorities?

                A.  Satisficing

 

                B.  Optimizing

 

                C.  Experimenting

 

                D.  Brainstorming and multivoting with a team

               

 

13) Upon review of the customer comment cards dropped in the box in his convenience store, Bob sees that 61% of the customers filling out a card have expressed dissatisfaction with waiting times. Bob decides to add an additional cashier during the day. Bob is using the ______ thinking style in order to make this decision.

                A.  deductive logical

                B.  creative

 

                C.  metaphorical

 

                D.  inductive logical

 

               

 

14) In nearly all decision-making models, which of the following is an essential step in the decision-making process?

                A.  Identify alternatives

 

                B.  Analyzing negative feedback

                C.  Appraising the problem

 

                D.  Making trade-offs

 

               

 

15) You have been assigned to a project team to develop a marketing plan a new product being launched by your company. Which of the following should the project team do first?

                A.  Identify the obstacles presented by competitors.

 

                B.  Define the project team’s goal.

 

                C.  Consult with the rest of the employees involved in the new product development.

               

D.  Deliberate about the project team’s commitment.

 

               

 

16) Jan has been selected to implement her company’s decision to expand her company’s manufacturing operation into a new location. Six months into this project, the building has been completed, and machinery installed. However, Jan has been unable to secure enough applicants with the technical skills needed to operate this computerized facility. Jan’s implementation plan was most deficient in its consideration of

                A.  timeline

 

                B.  technological constraints

 

                C.  organizational mission

 

                D.  resource

 

               

 

17) In response to declining profits, a company decides that it needs to become world class, but is having difficulty developing an implementation plan around the goal of “becoming world class.” Rather than implement this decision, the company would be well advised to return to the ______ step of decision making.

                A.  develop criteria, goals, and objectives

 

                B.  frame alternatives

 

                C.  determine measurements

 

                D.  evaluate the decision

 

               

 

18) Which factor would be most critical in decision implementation?

                A.  Contingency plan

 

                B.  Communication

 

                C.  Ethical considerations

 

                D.  Resources to implement decision

               

 

19) Freda is analyzing the prospects for a new gambling casino that her company is considering. In the course of her analysis, Freda has identified potential stakeholder resistance to this venture, in that she has discovered that the area is very densely populated with houses of worship. She has also discovered a potential source of support for this venture, in that the local government has established tax credits for new businesses in an effort to stimulate employment. Freda is, in all likelihood, developing a

                A.  resource allocation survey

 

                B.  Force Field Analysis

 

                C.  financial proforma income statement

 

                D.  ROI analysis

 

               

 

20) When implementing a decision, a company must ensure that its actions remain consistent with its

                A.  current resource allocations

 

                B.  organizational mission

 

                C.  past practices and procedures

 

                D.  employee’s preferences

 

               

 

21) Which decision making tool would be used in identifying possible causes for a problem?

                A.  Brainstorming

 

                B.  Multivoting

 

                C.  Fishbone diagram

 

                D.  Ranking

 

               

 

22) Markus worked last summer as a receptionist in a lawyer’s office. During a discussion with you, he commented that he was asked to tell callers that the lawyer was in court when in fact the lawyer was playing golf! He eventually quit the job because he believes that under no circumstance is it permissible to tell a lie. Markus appears to be following the ethical system referred to as a

                A.  rule or deontological ethics

 

                B.  Practical deliberation

 

                C.  Virtue ethics

 

                D.  utilitarianism

 

               

 

23) A company applying a ______ view of ethics would probably find fewer impediments to decisions involving cross cultural factors than one applying a ______ view.

                A.  universalist, relativist

 

                B.  relativist, universalist

 

                C.  deontological, rule based

 

                D.  virtue, utilitarian

 

               

 

24) In a global economy, which of the following must a manager consider in ensuring the ethicality of his or her decision?

                A.  Cross-cultural issues

 

                B.  Conflicting legal issues

 

                C.  Justification for outsourcing

                D.  Profitability

 

               

 

25) A tool that is helpful in monitoring, evaluating, and changing a decision as needed during implementation is the

                A.  stakeholder summary analysis

 

                B.  Plan, do, check, act (PDCA) cycle

 

                C.  contingency plan effectiveness audit

 

                D.  financial effectiveness audit

 

               

 

26) A measurement that identifies the degree to which goals and objectives are attained is a measure of:

                A.  organizational effectiveness

 

                B.  organizational precision

 

                C.  organizational efficiency

 

                D.  organizational stability

 

27) In order to apply continuous improvement in decision making, a company should take the time to record not only the results of its decisions, but also the

                A.  impact to external stakeholders

 

                B.  financial results

 

                C.  customer satisfaction data

 

                D.  process through which the decision was made

               

 

28) A company has decided to fund a summer basketball league for young people in the community. The decision will result in increased expenditures with no increase in revenues or profits. In evaluating this decision outcome, the officers of the company must weigh both its ______ responsibility and its ______ responsibility, two components of corporate social responsibility.

                A.  economic, legal

 

                B.  economic, philanthropic

 

                C.  economic, fiduciary

 

                D.  legal, ethical

 

               

 

29) As noted in our texts, a key measurement of our decisions is: “Are they ethical?” In order to achieve a superior level of ethical behavior in its decision making processes, leaders should instill a(n) ______ in those charged with making decisions.

                A.  compliance based approach to ethical considerations

 

                B.  integrity based approach to ethical considerations

 

                C.  legal approach to ethical considerations

 

                D.  utilitarian approach to ethical considerations

 

               

 

30) When evaluating the decision processes in an organization, leaders should consider doing which of the following?

                A.  Make a list of those affected by the decision, and determine if those interests are represented in the process under consideration.

                B.  Make sure to focus on results of the decision rather than the process.

 

                C.  Ensure that the process is consistent for all significant decisions.

 

                D.  Ensure that all of a company’s stakeholders provide input all of a company’s decisions.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

100% PERFECT TUTORIAL USE AS GUIDE FOR A+ SOLUTION(NEW EQUATION with all changes2014)

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Assignment 2: Operations Decision
Due Week 6 and worth 300 points

Using the regression results and the other computations from Assignment 1, determine the market structure in which the low-calorie frozen, microwavable food company operates.

Use the Internet to research two (2) of the leading competitors in the low-calorie frozen, microwavable food industry, and take note of their pricing strategies, profitability, and their relationships within the industry (worldwide).

Write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you:

1.     Outline a plan that will assess the effectiveness of the market structure for the company’s operations. Note: In Assignment 1, the assumption was that the market structure [or selling environment] was perfectly competitive and that the equilibrium price was to be determined by setting QD equal to QS. You are now aware of recent changes in the selling environment that suggest an imperfectly competitive market where your firm now has substantial market power in setting its own “optimal” price.

2.     Given that business operations have changed from the market structure specified in the original scenario in Assignment 1, determine two (2) likely factors that might have caused the change. Predict the primary manner in which this change would likely impact business operations in the new market environment.

3.     Analyze the major short run and long cost functions for the low-calorie, frozen microwaveable food company given the cost functions below. Suggest substantive ways in which the low-calorie food company may use this information in order to make decisions in both the short-run and the long-run.

TC = 160,000,000 + 100Q + 0.0063212Q2
VC = 100Q + 0.0063212Q2
MC= 100 + 0.0126424Q

4.     Determine the possible circumstances under which the company should discontinue operations. Suggest key actions that management should take in order to confront these circumstances. Provide a rationale for your response. (Hint: Your firm’s price must cover average variable costs in the short run and average total costs in the long run to continue operations.)

5.     Suggest one (1) pricing policy that will enable your low-calorie, frozen microwavable food company to maximize profits. Provide a rationale for your suggestion.

(Hints:

  • In Assignment 1, you determined your firm’s market demand equation. Now you need to find the inverse demand equation. Having found that, find the Total Revenue function for your firm (TR is P x Q). From your firm’s Total Revenue function, then find your Marginal Revenue (MR) function.
  • Use the profit maximization rule MR = MC to determine your optimal price and optimal output level now that you have market power. Compare these values with the values you generated in Assignment 1. Determine whether your price higher is or lower.)

6.     Outline a plan, based on the information provided in the scenario, which the company could use in order to evaluate its financial performance. Consider all the key drivers of performance, such as company profit or loss for both the short term and long term, and the fundamental manner in which each factor influences managerial decisions.

(Hints:

  • Calculate profit in the short run by using the price and output levels you generated in part 5. Optional: You may want to compare this to what profit would have been in Assignment 1 using the cost function provided here.
  • Calculate profit in the long run by using the output level you generated in part 5 and cost data in part 3 and assuming that the selling environment will likely be very competitive. Determine why this would be a valid assumption.)

7.     Recommend two (2) actions that the company could take in order to improve its profitability and deliver more value to its stakeholders. Outline, in brief, a plan to implement your recommendations.

8.     Use at least five (5) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia does not qualify as an academic resource.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

  • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Analyze short-run and long-run production and cost functions.
  • Apply macroeconomic concepts to changes in global and national economies and how they affect economic growth, inflation, interest rates, and wage rates.
  • Evaluate the profit-maximizing price and output level for given operating costs for monopolies and firms in competitive industries.
  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in managerial economics and globalization.
  • Write clearly and concisely about managerial economics and globalization using proper writing mechanics.

Click here to view the grading rubric.

 

 

Can Anyone Guarentee me an A

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The videos required for this discussion each touch on overlapping social problems. Although we will examine education, inequality, and race, each of which can be defined as a social problem or major component of larger social problems, the basis of our discussion is based on a simple argument:

  1. Education is an effective tool in our efforts to build a more equitable society.
  2. Therefore, equal educational opportunities must be available to all citizens.

In the video, Affirmative Action vs. Cultural Diversity, Tom Brokaw asks: “How do we remedy the historic mistreatment of deserving black Americans without punishing deserving white Americans today?”

Our efforts to address the problems of racial inequality have been centered in on one of our most important social institutions – education. While the schools of this country are a local place to focus these efforts, can we fix one problem without creating another? 

As always, we want more than your opinions. This question overlaps several chapters of our text, including an examination of education, race, and inequality. As such, we may see references to several chapters. We should also see evidence of additional research, properly cited, in support of positions offered in our responses.

Your initial post should be at least 250 words in length. Support your claims with examples from required material(s) and/or other scholarly resources, and properly cite any references. Respond to at least two of your classmates’ posts by Day 7. Are there general areas of agreement, and disagreement, among your classmates? What are they? How are these perspectives formed? 

LASA TAKEN ACTION

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Dropbox Assignment 

Assignment 2: LASA 1: Taking Action

In this course, you have been introduced to ethics, social problems, and social policy. This assignment will prompt action from you to help resolve a social issue. You must learn about a problem, find a piece of legislation addressing your concern, and act to help solve the problem.

Using the textbook, the Argosy University online library resources, and the Internet, do the following:

1. Identify the Problem

Select and research a social issue based on the course readings or personal interest.

Then, address the following:

  • Define and describe the social issue in detail using a variety of relevant outside sources.
  • Explain the social context of the social issue.
  • Identify and describe ethical concerns related to the social issue.
  • Determine what population is most impacted by the social issue.

2. Find the Legislation

Use credible government sources to find and learn about a piece of legislation related to your chosen social problem or issue.

Then, address the following:

  • Explain how the piece of current legislation relates to the social problem or issue. Make sure you provide a description of the piece of legislation.

3. Write an Advocacy Letter

In order to help resolve the social issue, you must take action. Identify your elected representative(s) and find their contact and e-mail addresses.

Write an advocacy letter regarding the piece of legislation and your support of or opposition to it.

The purpose of an advocacy letter is to support or oppose the legislation that affects a social issue of concern to you. This letter is a way for representatives to stay in touch with the constituents they represent. The letter consists of a brief introduction identifying and addressing the social issue of concern (through personal experience, if applicable), an identification of the piece of current legislation that addresses your chosen issue, and your request advocating your representative to support or oppose the legislation.

Be sure to address the following in your letter:

  • Identify the purpose of your letter.
  • Identify House bill (HR) or Senate bill (S) number of the legislation.
  • Briefly summarize the social problem or issue.
  • Explain the importance of the legislation as it relates to your issue.
  • Advocate for or against the legislation in a knowledgeable and respectful tone. This includes the following:
    • Evaluating the proposed impact of the legislation on target population
    • Proposing possible ways the legislation can influence the social problem or issue

Download and review samples of advocacy letters. Use either of the sample letters as a template for your own letter.

Write a 3–5-page report in Word format that begins with an Advocacy Letter followed by a supporting report of 3–5-pages. Apply APA standards to citation of sources. Use the following file naming convention: LastnameFirstInitial_M3_A2.doc.

By Wednesday, September 24, 2014, deliver your assignment to the M3: Assignment 2 Dropbox.

Assignment 2 Grading Criteria
Maximum Points
Identify the Problem: Define and describe the social issue in detail using relevant outside sources. (Course Objective [CO] 1)
24
Identify the Problem: Identify and describe ethical concerns and population(s) most impacted by this social issue. (CO 1, 4)
28
Finding the Legislation: Explain piece of current legislation related to social problem/issue and evaluate legislation related to social problem or issue. (CO 3, 4)
28
Advocacy Letter: Identify purpose of your letter, as well as, the House bill (HR) or Senate bill (S) number of legislation. (CO 1, 2)
20
Advocacy Letter: Analyze the importance of legislation related to problem or issue. (CO 3, 4)
28
Advocacy Letter: Advocate for or against legislation in knowledgeable and respectable tone. (CO 4)
28
Written Components:
Organization. (12)
Usage and mechanics. (12)
APA elements. (16)
Style. (4)
44
Total:
200
 

 

BUS 680 Week 6 Final Paper

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Focus of the Final Paper
Each person must complete a research paper addressing one of the following topics or a mutually agreed upon topic between the student and instructor:
§ Training Needs Analysis
§ Training Strategies for Small and Medium Sized Businesses: One Size Doesn’t Fit All
§ Management Development Techniques
§ Training Evaluation: New Techniques and Strategies
§ The Learning Organization: Three Companies That Have Made it a Reality
§ Technical Training: A “How To” Guide to Enhancing Technical KSA’s
§ Other topic approved by instructor
These papers are to reflect the current “state of the art” in the area and should reflect both academic and professional (practical) orientations. The paper should review the available research, discuss the implications of that research for the topic area, and provide conclusions. The paper should be organized into the following areas:
1. Introduction: The area of research should be described and the purpose of the research. That is, describe the topic area in terms of (1) its relationship to training and (2) what you want to be able to contribute to the training literature by writing this paper.
2. Review of the literature: Organize the literature into logical streams of thought related to your topic area. Within each of these areas summarize what the literature has to say. Be sure to indicate in your discussion whether the information is based on empirical data or just the opinion of the author.
3. Implications of the literature: Again, organize the implications of the literature in a manner that logically builds the case for your conclusions (which you will present in the next section). For each of your implications be sure to reference the literature related to that implication. Be sure to indicate whether the implication is one that has already been made in the literature or if this is one that is original to you. You should identify in this section important areas related to your topic that are missing from the literature.
4. Conclusions: This is where you tie all the pieces together. Make sure your conclusions are organized in a logical order that states what you have concluded relative to the purpose of your paper. Be sure that these conclusions are justified. For example, conclusions based upon empirical fact have more weight than those based upon opinion. Opinions shared by many in the literature have more weight than those of only one author.