BSHS 406 for vivanm

Week 1 Life Cycle

The life cycle is a key component in understanding the individual and what impacts that individual as a result of being in the cycle of his or her life.

Write a 700- to 950-word paper exploring the impact of the life cycle. Include the following information:

Describe three of the major concepts in the family or individual life cycle:

  • Include how self-determination impacts an individual’s ability to successfully negotiate challenges in each life cycle.
  • Include how autonomy impacts an individual’s ability to successfully negotiate challenges in each life cycle.
  • Explore how policies and legislation could impact the family or individual during each life cycle.

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

—————————————

Week 3 Spirituality and the Family Life Cycle

Use the family your team picked in Week Two.

Interview each member of the family to obtain an insight as to how the family member perceives the influence spirituality and culture has influenced their family.

Create five open-ended questions to be asked of each family member.

Combine each interview into a Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation.

Format your presentation consistent with APA guidelines.

———————————————–

Week 4 Practical Compromise During Divorce

Describe the issues to consider, as a human service worker, when helping individuals going through divorce.

Write a 350- to 500-word paper describing any practical compromises you would recommend and how these compromises help benefit the following during the divorce process:

  • Children
  • External relationships such as the following:
    • Grandparents and other relations
    • Family friends

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

——————————————–

Week 5 Alcohol and Family Violence

Watch the video “Alcohol and the Family: Breaking the Chain”

Write a 1,700- to 1,950-word paper discussing the impact alcohol and family violence can have on the life cycle.

Include the following information:

  • A historical perspective on how alcohol and family violence have been impacted by legislative changes
  • The impact of alcohol abuse on both the addicted individual and those around them
  • The impact of family violence on both the perpetrator of family violence and those exposed to family violence
  • Intervention methods, which could be applied to this family in crises
  • How the family rituals may affect the family member in crises

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

QNT 351 Final Exam

1) The main purpose of descriptive statistics is to

A. summarize data in a useful and informative manner

B. make inferences about a population

C. determine if the data adequately represents the population

D. gather or collect data

 

2) The general process of gathering, organizing, summarizing, analyzing, and interpreting data is called

A. statistics

B. descriptive statistics

C. inferential statistics

D. levels of measurement

 

3) The performance of personal and business investments is measured as a percentage, return on investment. What type of variable is return on investment?

A. Qualitative

B. Continuous

C. Attribute

D. Discrete

 

4) What type of variable is the number of robberies reported in your city?

A. Attribute

B. Continuous

C. Discrete

D. Qualitative

 

5) What level of measurement is the number of auto accidents reported in a given month?

A. Nominal

B. Ordinal

C. Interval

D. Ratio

 

6) The names of the positions in a corporation, such as chief operating officer or controller, are examples of what level of measurement?

A. Nominal

B. Ordinal

C. Interval

D. Ratio

 

7) Shoe sizes, such as 7B, 10D, and 12EEE, are examples of what level of measurement?

A. Nominal

B. Ordinal

C. Interval

D. Ratio

 

8) Monthly commissions of first-year insurance brokers are $1,270, $1,310, $1,680, $1,380, $1,410, $1,570, $1,180, and $1,420. These figures are referred to as

A. a histogram

B. raw data

C. frequency distribution

D. frequency polygon

 

9) A small sample of computer operators shows monthly incomes of $1,950, $1,775, $2,060, $1,840, $1,795, $1,890, $1,925, and $1,810. What are these ungrouped numbers called?

A. Histogram

B. Class limits

C. Class frequencies

D. Raw data

 

10) The sum of the deviations of each data value from this measure of central location will always be 0

A. Mode

B. Mean

C. Median

D. Standard deviation

 

11) For any data set, which measures of central location have only one value?

A. Mode and median

B. Mode and mean

C. Mode and standard deviation

D. Mean and median

 

12) A sample of single persons receiving social security payments revealed these monthly benefits: $826, $699, $1,087, $880, $839, and $965. How many observations are below the median?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

 

13) A dot plot shows

A. the general shape of a distribution

B. the mean, median, and mode

C. the relationship between two variables

D. the interquartile range

 

14) The test scores for a class of 147 students are computed. What is the location of the test score associated with the third quartile?

A. 111

B. 37

C. 74

D. 75%

 

15) The National Center for Health Statistics reported that of every 883 deaths in recent years, 24 resulted from an automobile accident, 182 from cancer, and 333 from heart disease. Using the relative frequency approach, what is the probability that a particular death is due to an automobile accident?

A. 24/883 or 0.027

B. 539/883 or 0.610

C. 24/333 or 0.072

D. 182/883 or 0.206

 

16) If two events A and B are mutually exclusive, what does the special rule of addition state?

A. P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B)

B. P(A and B) = P(A) + P(B)

C. P(A and/or B) = P(A) + P(B)

D. P(A or B) = P(A) – P(B)

 

17) A listing of all possible outcomes of an experiment and their corresponding probability of occurrence is called a

A. random variable

B. probability distribution

C. subjective probability

D. frequency distribution

 

18) The shape of any uniform probability distribution is

A. negatively skewed

B. positively skewed

C. rectangular

D. bell shaped

 

19) The mean of any uniform probability distribution is

A. (b – a)/2

B. (a + b)/2

C. Σ x/ η

D. nπ

 

20) For the normal distribution, the mean plus and minus 1.96 standard deviations will include about what percent of the observations?

A. 50%

B. 99.7%

C. 95%

D. 68%

 

21) For a standard normal distribution, what is the probability that z is greater than 1.75?

A. 0.0401

B. 0.0459

C. 0.4599

D. 0.9599

 

22) A null hypothesis makes a claim about a

A. A null hypothesis makes a claim about a

B. sample statistic

C. sample mean

D. Type II error

 

23) What is the level of significance?

A. Probability of a Type II error

B. Probability of a Type I error

C. z-value of 1.96

D. Beta error

 

24) Suppose we test the difference between two proportions at the 0.05 level of significance. If the computed z is -1.07, what is our decision?

A. Reject the null hypothesis

B. Do not reject the null hypothesis

C. Take a larger sample

D. Reserve judgment

 

25) Which of the following conditions must be met to conduct a test for the difference in two sample means?

A. Data must be at least of interval scale

B. Populations must be normal

C. Variances in the two populations must be equal

D. Data must be at least of interval scale and populations must be normal

 

26) Which of the following statements about the two sample sizes is NOT true? Assume the population standard deviations are equal.

A. Sample A = 11; sample B = 13

B. Sample A = 12; sample B = 14

C. Sample A = 13; sample B = 13

D. Sample A = 10; sample B = 16

 

27) What is the chart called when the paired data (the dependent and independent variables) are plotted?

A. Scatter diagram

B. Bar chart

C. Pie chart

D. Histogram

 

28) What is the variable used to predict the value of another called?

A. Independent variable

B. Dependent variable

C. Correlation variable

D. Variable of determination

 

29) Twenty randomly selected statistics students were given 15 multiple-choice questions and 15 open-ended questions, all on the same material. The professor was interested in determining on which type of questions the students scored higher. This experiment is an example of

A. a one sample test of means

B. a two sample test of means

C. a paired t-test

D. a test of proportions

 

30) The measurements of weight of 100 units of a product manufactured by two parallel processes have same mean but the standard of process A is 15 while that of B is 7. What can you conclude?

A. The weight of units in process A are grouped closer than in process B

B. The weight of units in process B are grouped closer than in process A

C. Both processes are out of control

D. More data is needed to draw a conclusion

 

 

MGT 330 Final Exam

1) Which of the following functions of management is focused on delivering strategic value?

A. Planning

 B. Organizing

 C. Leading

 D. Controlling

 

2) Which of the following best characterizes the controlling function of management?

A. Motivating people to be high performers

 B. Assigning job responsibilities and allocating resources

C. Monitoring performance and implementing changes as necessary

 D. Analyzing current situations and formulating business strategies

 

3) __________ involves analyzing a situation, determining goals to be pursued, and deciding upon the actions that will be taken to achieve these goals.

A. Staffing

 B. Leading

 C. Organizing

D. Planning

 

4) Robert was recently hired as the workplace safety compliance officer at ABC Power Company. Robert will have the responsibility to monitor regulations from which of these government agencies?

A. Federal Communications Commission

 B. Environmental Protection Agency

 C. National Labor Relations Board

D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration

          

5) Which of the following is the first step in effective delegation?

A. Give the person the authority needed.

B. Define the goal succinctly.

 C. Select the person to do the task.

 D. Solicit ideas from subordinates.

 

6) The assignment of different tasks to different people or groups is the

A. strategic plan

 B. organization structure

C. division of labor

 D. value chain

 

7) Plans are

A.   actions taken to achieve goals

B.   targets a manager wants to reach

C.   specific to differing industries

D.   inappropriate when resources are scarce

 

8) The outcome of situational analysis is

A. the identification of alternative plans of action

 B. the identification of contingency plans to be followed under various scenarios

C. the identification of planning assumptions, issues, and problems

 D. the identification of the consequences of alternatives under consideration

 

9) What is management’s function in strategic planning?

A. To outline the goals and objectives of the organization

 B. To give specific directions as to how each department is operated

 C. To begin the selection and hiring process for the organization

 D. To set-up tight controls on how each function in the organization is to be structured

 

10) Which of the following would provide the best information for the manager on factors that influence the company’s strategic, tactical, operational, and contingency plans?

A. Recently released government regulations

 B. Statistical data regarding market share

C. SWOT analysis

 D. Prior year’s financial performance of the company

 

11) __________ plans might be referred to as “what-if” plans.

A. Single-use

 B. Strategic

C. Contingency

 D. Standing

 

12) A plan that focuses on ongoing activities and may become a more permanent policy or rule is a

A. standing plan

 B. single-use plan

 C. strategy

 D. mission statement

 

13) Which type of program should management implement to have a culture of ethics that prevent, detect, and punish legal violations?

A. Sarbanes-Oxley Act Training

 B. Ethics program

C. Compliance-based ethics program

 D. Integrity-based ethics program

 

14) Honesty, caring, loyalty, fairness, and integrity are all examples of

A. citizenship

B. values

 C. self-focus

 D. ethics

 

15) As a manager, you want to create a project team to plan and implement a project designed to meet the demands of globalization. Which of the following types of organizational structure would you use to achieve higher degree of flexibility and adaptability of the team members?

A. Functional

 B. Divisional

 C. Matrix

D. Network

 

16) The planning process of human resources management begins with

A. determining the number and types of people needed to realize the organization’s business plans

 B. recruiting individuals who will assist the organization to realize its business plans

 C. training people who will assist the organization to realize its business plans

D. evaluating an organization’s present employees and their capabilities to fulfill the organization’s business plans

         

17) Which type of organizational structure optimizes employee empowerment?

A. Centralized

B. Decentralized

 C. Functional

 D. Divisional

 

18) The assignment of different tasks to different people or groups is the

A. strategic plan

 B. organization structure

C. division of labor

 D. value chain

 

19) Which of the following is an advantage of product departmentalization?

A. Information needs managed more easily

 B. Suitable for stable environments

C. Efficient resource utilization

 D. Decision making and lines of communication are simple

 

20) Ruby recently accepted a job with a large insurance firm as an internal auditor. Ruby has found that her job is different than the internship she had at an accounting consulting firm. The insurance firm has strictly defined job responsibilities and lines of communication. For every decision Ruby needs to make, approval must be obtained from upper management. Overall, she has found the atmosphere to be quite formal as compared to the internship. Ruby has concluded that the insurance firm has

A. a high degree of centralization

 B. decentralized authority

 C. a matrix design

 D. an ineffective structure

 

21) A mental image of a possible and desirable future state of the organization is a(n)

A. strategic plan

 B. operational plan

 C. goal

D. vision

 

22) A leader is

 A.   someone with authority over others

B.   the top-level manager in a firm or business

C.   a strategic-level manager

D.   someone who influences others to attain goals

 

23) Legitimate power is described as power that exists through

A. control over punishments

 B. control over rewards

 C. the authority to tell others what to do

D. having expertise

 

24) Behavior that gives purpose and meaning to organizations, while envisioning and creating a positive future, is

A. supervisory leadership

B. strategic leadership

 C. charismatic leadership

 D. task-motivated leadership

 

25) NAFTA combined the economies of

A. the U.S., Canada, and Mexico

 B. Canada, Mexico, and South America

 C. South America, the U.S., and Latin America

 D. Latin America, Pacific Rim, and the European Union

          

26) A pharmaceutical manufacturer actively monitors all products produced to verify their ingredients fall within rigid control ranges that ensure product effectiveness. This monitoring allows them to make adjustments should they see negative trends occurring. The manufacturer is engaging in the management function of

A. planning

 B. controlling

C. quality assurance

 D. regulatory compliance

 

27) Which type of control works best when there is “no one best way” to do a job and employees are empowered to make decisions?

A. Bureaucratic control

 B. Market control

C. Clan control

 D. Performance control

 

28) This type of control takes place while plans are carried out, and is the heart of any control system.

A. Feedback control.

B. Concurrent control

 C. Feed forward control

 D. Market control

 

29) Where are performance data commonly obtained?

A. Oral and written reports and personal observation

 B. Supervisors, line managers, and coworkers

 C. Top, middle, and lower management

D. Competitors

 

30) The last step in the control process is

A. taking corrective action

 B. setting performance standards

 C. measuring performance

 D. comparing performance

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

MAT 540 Week 3 Quiz 1

1. The term decision analysis refers to testing how a problem solution reacts to changes in one or more of the model parameters. (Points : 2) True False

 

2. Fixed costs depend on the number of items produced. (Points : 2) True False

 

3. Total cost equal the fixed cost plus the variable cost per unit divided by volume. (Points : 2) True False   

 

4. Profit is the difference between total revenue and total cost. (Points : 2) True False

 

5. An experiment is an activity that results in one of several possible outcomes. (Points : 2) True False 

 

6. Variable costs are independent of volume and remain constant. (Points : 2) True False

 

7. The events in an experiment are mutually exclusive if only one can occur at a time. (Points : 2) True False

 

8. The probabilities of mutually exclusive events sum to zero. (Points : 2) True False

 

9. A model is a functional relationship and include: (Points : 2)

variables

parameters

equations

all of the above

 

10. Which of the following is an equation or an inequality that expresses a resource restriction in a mathematical model? (Points : 2)

decision variable.

data

an objective function.

 a constraint.

a parameter.

 

11. In a given experiment, the probabilities of all mutually exclusive events sum to one. (Points : 2) True False

 

12. Which of the following is not an alternative name for management science? (Points : 2) decision sciences

 quantitative methods

 quantitative analysis

operations research

decision support systems

 

13. The steps of the scientific method are: (Points : 2)

problem definition, model construction, observation, model solution, implementation. observation, problem definition, model construction, model solution, implementation.

model construction, problem definition, observation, model solution, implementation. observation, implementation, problem definition, model construction, model solution.

 

14. A frequency distribution is an organization of numerical data about the events in an experiment. (Points : 2) True False

 

15. A set of events is collectively exhaustive when it includes _______ the events that can occur in an experiment. (Points : 2)

 some of one of all any of

 

16. Objective probabilities that can be stated prior to the occurrence of an event are (Points : 2) subjective a priori

classical or a priori

none of the above

 

17. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to the use of models in decision making? (Points : 2)

they improve understanding of the problem

they promote subjectivity in decision making

they are generally easy to use

they provide a systematic approach to problem solving

 

18. In a given experiment the probabilities of mutually exclusive events sum to (Points : 2)

0

 0.5

1      

none of the above

 

19. A ___________ probability is the probability that two or more events that are not mutually exclusive can occur simultaneously. (Points : 2)

joint

marginal

subjective

binomial

 

20. ____________ techniques include uncertainty and assume that there can be more than one model solution. (Points : 2)

Deterministic

Probabilistic

Distribution

Probability

 

 

Child and Adolescent Development Forum due ASAP

As you have learned this week, diagnosing psychiatric disorders in children is a tricky business. Mental health professionals must take many factors into consideration when diagnosing, not the least of which is what might happen if a child were to be misdiagnosed.

1.) What effect might misdiagnosis have on their lives?

One recent hot controversy in the field of child psychiatry/psychology is over the prevalence of Bipolar disorder in young children and teens. Trust me when I tell you that there are competent professionals on both side of the fence who feel very strongly about this issue. Please link to and read the following:

http://www.cbsnews.com/stories/2007/09/28/60minutes/main3308525.shtml

Obviously, something went wrong with the treatment of Rebecca Riley. Rather than focusing on this specific case, however, I’d like for us to discuss the larger issue related to the benefits and risks of diagnosing and treating young children with psychiatric disorders (e.g., ADHD, Conduct Disorder, Bipolar, Depression, etc…). Try to argue on both the “pro” and the “con” side.

2.) Why should or shouldn’t we diagnose young children?

3.) What age is “too young” to diagnose, or is there no age limit?

4.) What are the cons of giving diagnoses too young to children?

5.) What are the pros and cons of using psychiatric medication with young children?

Support your opinions with research, not just on “word of mouth” or personal experience.

**Remember that emotions may run strong about this “hot” issue, so please be sure to use your netiquette! 
 

 

CHFD 300 level courses

# Words  Minimum

Citations

Due

Initial forum post

300

2 citations; one can be text; other must be from an academic source

QNT 561 Final Exam 1

QNT 561 Final Exam 1

Rating A

 

1) Which of the following measures of central location is affected most by extreme values?        

A. Mean

               

B. Median

               

C. Mode

               

D. Geometric mean

 

 

 2) Which level of measurement is required for the median?  

A. Nominal

 

B. Ordinal

               

C. Interval

               

D. Ratio

 

 

 3) Which level of measurement is required for the mode?      

A. Nominal

               

B. Ordinal

               

C. Interval

               

D. Ratio

 

 

 4) In a set of observations, which measure of central tendency reports the value that occurs most often?               

A. Mean

               

B. Median

               

C. Mode

               

D. Geometric mean

 

 

 5) The weighted mean is a special case of what?      

A. Mean

 

B. Median

               

C. Mode

               

D. Geometric mean

 

 

 

 6) A sample of 5 companies were examined for changes in their relative market share. The results showed the following increases and decreases: –5, 10, 10, 5, –10.          

A. 8

               

B. 2

               

C. -2

               

D. 6

 

 

 7) The difference between the sample mean and the population mean is called the       

A. margin of error

               

B. population standard deviation

               

C. standard error of the mean

               

D. sampling error

 

 

 8) A local trade union consists of plumbers and electricians. Classified according to rank:

               

Apprentice            Journeyman         Master     Total

Plumbers               25           20           30           75

Electricians           15           40           20           75

40           60           50          

 

A member of the union is selected at random. Given that the person selected is an electrician, what is the probability that the person is a master?                

A.   .053

               

B.  .133

               

C.   .500

               

D.    .267

 

 

 9) Suppose a population consisted of 20 items. How many different samples of n = 3 are possible?         

A.   6840

               

B.   1140

               

C.   20

               

D.   120

 

 

 10) The mean and the variance are equal in             

A.   the normal distribution

               

B.    the binomial distribution

               

C.    the Poisson distribution

               

D.    the hypergeometric distribution

 

 

 

11) In the 1936 Presidential Election Franklin D. Roosevelt defeated Alfred E. Landon in a landslide vote. A Landon victory had been predicted by the Literary Digest, a magazine that ran the oldest, largest, and most widely publicized of the polls at the time. The Digest’s final prediction was based on 10 million sample ballots mailed to prospective voters, and 2.3 million were returned. The sample of voters was drawn from lists of automobile and telephone owners. Despite the massive size of this sample, it failed to predict a Roosevelt victory, being off the mark by 19 percentage points. The Digest was wrong because      

A.   the sample size, although large, was not large enough

               

B.    the right research questions were not asked

               

C.    respondents intentionally lied about their preferred candidate

               

D.     the sample used was not representative of the actual population at the time

 

 

 12) In a study on the effect of reinforcement on learning from a company online training program, two experimental treatments are planned: reinforcement given after every learning module, or reinforcement given after every two learning modules. Reinforcement is accomplished with the addition of more examples. Which one of the following control groups would serve best in this study?           

A.  A group that does not read any of the learning modules.

               

B.   A group that reads the modules using hardcopy only.

               

C.  A group that reads the learning modules, but does not receive reinforcement.

               

D. A group that reads the learning modules with random reinforcement.

 

 

 13) The central limit theorem is important to market researchers because it states that as sample sizes increase, the distribution of the sample ________ collected from consumers on any topic of interest being researched approaches the normal distribution.               

A.   medians

               

B.   means

               

C.   standard deviations

               

D.   variances

 

 

 14) To find confidence intervals for the mean of a normal distribution, the t distribution is usually used in practical applications instead of the standard normal distribution because    

A.   the mean of the population is not known

               

B.   the t distribution is more effective

               

C.   the variance of the population is usually not known

               

D.   the sample size is not known

 

 

 15) We wish to develop a confidence interval for the population mean. The population follows the normal distribution, the standard deviation of the population is 3, and we have a sample of 10 observations. We decide to use the 90% level of confidence. The appropriate value of to represent the level of confidence is          

A.   z=1.65

               

B.   z=1.96

               

C.    z=1.833

               

D.   z=1.812

 

 

 

16) Which of the following is a correct statement about a probability?

A. It may range from 0 to 1.

 B. It may assume negative values.

 C. It may be greater than 1.

 D. It cannot be reported to more than 1 decimal place.

 

17) The special rule of addition is used to combine

 A. independent events

B. mutually exclusive events

 C. events that total more than one

 D. events based on subjective probabilities

 

18) We use the general rule of multiplication to combine

 A. events that are not independent

 B. mutually exclusive events

C. events that total more than 1.00

 D. events based on subjective probabilities

 

19) A discrete variable

 A. is an example of a qualitative variable

 B. can assume only whole number values

 C. can assume only certain clearly separated values

D. cannot be negative

 

20) A nominal scale variable

A. usually involves ranking.

 B. cannot assume negative values

 C. has meaningful zero point

 D. is usually based on counting

 

21) The ratio scale of measurement

 A. usually the result of counting something

B. has meaningful zero point

 C. may assume negative values

 D. cannot have more than two categories

 

22) In the world of market research, the use of a questionnaire often plays a vital role in gaining useful business intelligence because

 A. it is a structured technique to collect secondary data

 B. it represents a way to ask anything you want from respondents and receive valid information

 C. it does not need to be tested

D. it can be used in conjunction with other techniques such as field interviews and focus groups to maximize data input

 

23) A Type I error is

 A. the correct decision

 B. a value determined from the test statistic

C. rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true

 D. accepting the null hypothesis when it is false

 

24) In a two-sample test of means for independent samples, we use the z distribution when

 A. the population standard deviations are equal

B. both populations have at least 4,000 observations

 C. both population standard deviations are known

 D. nB and n(1-B) are both greater than 5

 

25) Which of the following is a requirement for a two-sample test of proportions?

 A. The population standard deviations are equal.

 B. Both populations are positively skewed.

 C. Both samples are at least 30.

D. nB and n(1-B) are both greater than 5.

 

26) Bob is interested in opening a candy store in his town. He believes that his customers will spend an average of $75 or more in annual purchases (the alternative hypothesis). Bob hires a consultant to test this belief. The consultant tested this conjecture on a sample of 100 customers and found the p-value for the test statistic satisfied p > .25, then

 A. you would not reject the null hypothesis

 B. you would reject the null hypothesis for alpha= .01

C. you would reject the null hypothesis for alpha= .05

 D. you would reject the null hypothesis for alpha= .10

 

27) A carefully designed business experiment has just been concluded. Unfortunately, use of alpha = .05 indicated no significant differences among four treatments. What useful information can you supply future investigators when you report on this experiment?

A. The means are different but their variances are the same.

 B. The estimated variance (and its df) can be useful to future investigators.

 C. Pair-wise tests can be conducted to show significant differences.

 D. Significant differences can be reported by changing the type I error rate from .05 to .10, .20, or whatever is needed to declare significance.

 

28) A correlation matrix

A. shows all simple coefficients of correlation between variables

 B. shows only correlations that are zero

 C. shoes the correlations that are positive

 D. shows only the correlations that are statistically significant

 

29) The multiple standard error of estimate is

 A. the measure of variability to the prediction

 B. negative when one of the net regression coefficients is zero

C. found by calculating SSR/SS total

 D. the measure of accuracy of the prediction

 

30) A dummy variable or indicator variable

 A. may assume only a value of 0 or 1

B. is another term for the dependent variable

 C. is a quantitative variable

 D. is a variable at a ratio or interval level of measurement

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

sociology Paper

Select a topic of your choice.  Use a sociological theory/perspective to analyze your topic 

 

Choose a topic in your Major or a topic/issue that you are passionate about.  Here is an illustration of how to use one of the sociological theories discussed in the book.

 

 

If you decide to use the conflict theory: you must fully define this theory—make sure that you understand it as well.  Then, use it to analyze, for example, the Affordable Health Care.  What is the Affordable Health Care?  Why do some people support it and others do not?  In other words, discuss the views of those who support it and those that do not support it.  In general, most Democrats and few Republicans support it, while few Democrats and most Republicans oppose it.  In this case, there have been a struggle between the supporters and non-supporters of this healthcare reform .  Amongst other questions, you should explain: What actions has each side taken?  What have been some of the outcomes so far?  Has it been repealed? What types of insurance do the lawmakers have—is their insurance similar to what most Americans have?  You do not have to take a position, but you may if you want to.

 

 

You are required to use at least 5 sources [diversify the sources] (information from books, scholarly articles, news paper articles, personal interviews, and legitimate internet sources). You should include in-text citations within the paper and a Works Cited page as the last page. You must be consistent with the style (MLA ) throughout the paper.

 

Here is the rubric for this paper: The paper should be 7-8 pages long using double-space, normal margins (about 1 inch all around), Times New Roman, and 12 font. You should follow the essay format: introduction, thesis statement, supporting details, and conclusion.

 

*And also, make a good PPT for presentation. It should be 5 min long.( you should also give me a PPT).

Discussion 2 SOC 120 Week 3

The purpose of this discussion is to give you the opportunity to apply ethical theories and perspectives to modern issues of the workplace. Off-duty conduct away from the workplace can be monitored and reported in many ways, and with the increase in social media use, there will be far greater opportunities for employers to become aware of what employees get up to outside of the workplace. Some types of behaviors are especially concerning as they may have on-duty consequences; however,  other types of off-duty behavior are more difficult to clearly define as grossly inappropriate to warrant employer intervention. But who draws this line, and what are the ethical implications of where the line is drawn? Prepare and post a response to the following prompt:

Using the resources provided, your own research, and your knowledge of the ethical concepts from the text, consider the issue of off-site monitoring of conduct:

  • Using your own work experience, imagine a circumstance in which your supervisor wanted to monitor your behavior off the job. Describe the circumstances, including how your conduct is being monitored and why your conduct is being monitored.
  • Would you consider your example to involve a minor, moderate, or severe invasion on an individual’s privacy? Explain your reasoning. Share your un-emotional, well-defined, evidence-based response to your boss to support your viewpoint.
  • What issues led to the employer’s monitoring of the employee? Use one ethical theory or perspective to help support the employer’s viewpoint, and use a scholarly source as your evidence.
  • What about the employee’s viewpoint? Use one ethical theory or perspective to support the employee’s right to privacy outside of work, and use a scholarly source as your evidence.

Your initial post should be at least 250 words in length. Support your claims with examples from the required material(s) and/or other scholarly sources, and properly cite any references in APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center. Respond to at least two of your classmates’ posts by Day 7.

LASA 2: Analyzing a Social Policy

Assignment 1: LASA 2: Analyzing a Social Policy

In this course, you have learned that social policies are formulated to solve social problems considered important by a mass of voters, media, and political actors. Social policy is but one solution to the problem—not necessarily the most rational, effective, or socially just. Social policies are human creations and, as such, can be changed. In this paper you will analyze a social policy as a tool for social justice.

Research one social welfare policy using your textbook, the Argosy University online library resources, and the Internet.

Analyze the policy and address the following:

The social problem addressed by the policy

  1. What is/are the problem/s to be solved in the most fundamental terms?
  2. What is the history of the problem/s in the United States?
  3. What are the various theories about the causes of the problem/s? Based on this, what do you think is/are the most important causes/s of the problem/s?

The policy objectives, value premises, expectation, and target populations

  1. Policy objectives—overt and covert objectives: What are the stated objectives of the policy? In your judgment, what are the covert objectives of the policy?
  2. What are the values underlying the policy objectives? What values are revealed by the overt and covert objectives?
  3. What did the policymakers expect would be the result of the policy?
  4. Target segments of the population at whom policy is aimed: Discuss the direct target of the policy in terms of size and other demographic characteristics. Who are the indirect targets of the policy?

Effects of the policy

  1. Intended effects: What effects did the lawmakers intend?
  2. Unintended effects: What effects did the lawmakers not foresee?
  3. Distinguish between short-range (less than five years) and long-range (over five years) effects of the policy.

Implications of the Policy

  1. Changes in the distribution of material resources: Are there any changes to the distribution of material resources, including income and other tangible benefits, as a result of the policy for direct or indirect target groups?
  2. Changes in distribution of services, rights, and statuses: Are there any changes in services, rights, or statuses as a result of the policy?

Alternative Policies

  1. What alternative policy/policies would more effectively address the social problem discussed in the policy analysis while advancing social justice?

Write a 4–6-page paper in Word format. Apply APA standards to citation of sources. Make sure to include research in addition to the textbook from credible, scholarly sources. Use the following file naming convention: LastnameFirstInitial_M5_A1.doc.

By Monday, October 6, 2014, deliver your assignment to the M5: Assignment 1 Dropbox.

Grading Rubric

Assignment 1 Grading Criteria
Maximum Points
What is/are the problem/s to be solved in the most fundamental terms?
What is the history of the problem/s in the United States?
32
What are various theories about the causes of the problem/s? Based on the theories selected, what do you think is/are the most important causes/s of the problem/s?
28
Policy objectives—overt and covert objectives: What are the stated objectives of the policy?
In your judgment what are the covert objectives of the policy? What are the values underlying the policy objectives? What values are revealed by the overt and covert objectives?
28
What did the policymakers expect would be the result of the policy?
28
Target segments of the population at whom policy is aimed: Discuss the direct target of the policy in terms of size and other demographic characteristics. Who are the indirect targets of the policy?
28
Intended effects: What are the effects that lawmakers intended?
Unintended effects: What are the effects that the lawmakers did not foresee? Distinguish between short-range (less than 5 years) and long–range (over 5 years) effects of the policy.
36
Changes in the distribution of material resources: Are there any changes to the distribution of material resources, including income and other tangible benefits, as a result of the policy for direct or indirect target groups? Changes in distribution of services, rights, and statuses: Are there any changes in services, rights, or statuses as a result of the policy?
28
What alternative policy/policies would address the social problem discussed in the policy analysis more effectively while advancing social justice?
28
Written Components:
Organization (16)
Usage and mechanics (16)
APA elements (24)
Style (8)
64
Total:
300
 

 

 

FIN 534 Week 7 Homework Problems Chapters 12 and 13

FIN 534 – Homework Chapter 12

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a. Perhaps the most important step when developing forecasted financial statements is to determine the breakdown of common equity between common stock and retained earnings.

b. The first, and perhaps the most critical, step in forecasting financial requirements is to forecast future sales.

c. Forecasted financial statements, as discussed in the text, are used primarily as a part of the managerial compensation program, where management’s historical performance is evaluated.

d. The capital intensity ratio gives us an idea of the physical condition of the firm’s fixed assets.

e. The AFN equation produces more accurate forecasts than the forecasted financial statement method, especially if fixed assets are lumpy, economies of scale exist, or if excess capacity exists.

 

2. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a. The sustainable growth rate is the maximum achievable growth rate without the firm having to raise external funds.  In other words, it is the growth rate at which the firm’s AFN equals zero.               

b. If a firm’s assets are growing at a positive rate, but its retained earnings are not increasing, then it would be impossible for the firm’s AFN to be negative.

c. If a firm increases its dividend payout ratio in anticipation of higher earnings, but sales and earnings actually decrease, then the firm’s actual AFN must, mathematically, exceed the previously calculated AFN.

d. Higher sales usually require higher asset levels, and this leads to what we call AFN.  However, the AFN will be zero if the firm chooses to retain all of its profits, i.e., to have a zero dividend payout ratio.

e. Dividend policy does not affect the requirement for external funds based on the AFN equation.

 

3. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a. When we use the AFN equation, we assume that the ratios of assets and liabilities to sales (A0*/S0 and L0*/S0) vary from year to year in a stable, predictable manner.

b. When fixed assets are added in large, discrete units as a company grows, the assumption of constant ratios is more appropriate than if assets are relatively small and can be added in small increments as sales grow.

c. Firms whose fixed assets are “lumpy” frequently have excess capacity, and this should be accounted for in the financial forecasting process.

d. For a firm that uses lumpy assets, it is impossible to have small increases in sales without expanding fixed assets.

e. There are economies of scale in the use of many kinds of assets.  When economies occur the ratios are likely to remain constant over time as the size of the firm increases.  TheEconomic Ordering Quantity model for establishing inventory levels demonstrates this relationship.

 

4. Last year Jain Technologies had $250 million of sales and $100 million of fixed assets, so its FA/Sales ratio was 40%.  However, its fixed assets were used at only 75% of capacity.  Now the company is developing its financial forecast for the coming year.  As part of that process, the company wants to set its target Fixed Assets/Sales ratio at the level it would have had had it been operating at full capacity.  What target FA/Sales ratio should the company set?

a. 28.5%

b. 30.0%

c. 31.5%

d. 33.1%

e. 34.7%

 

5. Howton & Howton Worldwide (HHW) is planning its operations for the coming year, and the CEO wants you to forecast the firm’s additional funds needed (AFN).  The firm is operating at full capacity.  Data for use in the forecast are shown below.  However, the CEO is concerned about the impact of a change in the payout ratio from the 10% that was used in the past to 50%, which the firm’s investment bankers have recommended.  Based on the AFN equation, by how much would the AFN for the coming year change if HHW increased the payout from 10% to the new and higher level?  All dollars are in millions.

Last year’s sales = S0 $300.0 Last year’s accounts payable $50.0

Sales growth rate = g 40% Last year’s notes payable $15.0

Last year’s total assets = A0* $500.0 Last year’s accruals $20.0

Last year’s profit margin = PM 20.0% Initial payout ratio 10.0%

a. $31.9

b. $33.6

c. $35.3

d. $37.0

e. $38.9

 

 

FIN 534 – Homework Chapter 13

1. Suppose Leonard, Nixon, & Shull Corporation’s projected free cash flow for next year is $100,000, and FCF is expected to grow at a constant rate of 6%.  If the company’s weighted average cost of capital is 11%, what is the value of its operations?

a. $1,714,750

b. $1,805,000

c. $1,900,000

d. $2,000,000

e. $2,100,000

 

2. Leak Inc. forecasts the free cash flows (in millions) shown below.  If the weighted average cost of capital is 11% and FCF is expected to grow at a rate of 5% after Year 2, what is the Year 0 value of operations, in millions?  Assume that the ROIC is expected to remain constant in Year 2 and beyond (and do not make any half-year adjustments).

Year: 1 2

Free cash flow: -$50 $100

a. $1,456

b. $1,529

c. $1,606

d. $1,686

e. $1,770

 

 

3. Based on the corporate valuation model, the value of a company’s operations is $1,200 million.  The company’s balance sheet shows $80 million in accounts receivable, $60 million in inventory, and $100 million in short-term investments that are unrelated to operations.  The balance sheet also shows $90 million in accounts payable, $120 million in notes payable, $300 million in long-term debt, $50 million in preferred stock, $180 million in retained earnings, and $800 million in total common equity.  If the company has 30 million shares of stock outstanding, what is the best estimate of the stock’s price per share?

a. $24.90

b. $27.67

c. $30.43

d. $33.48

e. $36.82

 

 

4. Based on the corporate valuation model, the value of a company’s operations is $900 million.  Its balance sheet shows $70 million in accounts receivable, $50 million in inventory, $30 million in short-term investments that are unrelated to operations, $20 million in accounts payable, $110 million in notes payable, $90 million in long-term debt, $20 million in preferred stock, $140 million in retained earnings, and $280 million in total common equity.  If the company has 25 million shares of stock outstanding, what is the best estimate of the stock’s price per share?

a. $23.00

b. $25.56

c. $28.40

d. $31.24

e. $34.36

 

 

5. Vasudevan Inc. forecasts the free cash flows (in millions) shown below.  If the weighted average cost of capital is 13% and the free cash flows are expected to continue growing at the same rate after Year 3 as from Year 2 to Year 3, what is the Year 0 value of operations, in millions?

Year: 1 2 3

Free cash flow: -$20 $42 $45

a. $586

b. $617

c. $648

d. $680

e. $714