1) Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of a common law legal system?

                A.   Requiring guilt be proven beyond a reasonable doubt

                B.   The sole source of law is a comprehensive civil code

                C.   An appeal process

                D.   The making of law by the judges and the following of precedent

 

               

 

2) Which best describes the types of agency authority held by officers of a corporation?

                A.   Vicarious authority

                B.   Express and obvious authority

                C.   Implied and apparent authority only

                D.   Express, implied, and apparent authority

 

               

 

3) If an LLC fails to follow formalities such as keeping minutes of meetings, which of the following is true?

                A.   Only the managers of a manager-managed LLC will lose limited liability.

                B.   All members will lose their limited liability.

                C.   This failure will not result in imposing personal liability on any member.

                D.   Only the parties responsible for the failure will lose limited liability.

 

               

4) Martha started a flower shop as a sole proprietor. After 1 year, she was forced to close the shop because business was so bad. At that time, the business assets totaled $50,000, but the business liabilities totaled $125,000. Which of the following statements is true?

                A.   Martha is personally liable for the additional $75,000.

                B.   Martha’s business creditors can collect only the $50,000 of business assets.

                C.   Martha’s business creditors can collect only the $50,000 now, but if Martha ever goes into business again, they can get the assets of the new business.

                D.   Once Martha terminates the sole proprietorship, the business creditors cannot even get the $50,000.

               

 

5) Partners of a general partnership

                A.   are protected from litigation against the partnership by statute

                B.   are liable for the obligations of the partnership only to the extent of their capital contributions

                C.   do not have to pay taxes on the profits of the partnership that are distributed to them

                D.   are liable for all the obligations of their partnership

 

               

6) Which of the following forms of alternative dispute resolution allows both parties to see the strengths and weaknesses of both sides of the case through the presentation of evidence?

                A.   Negotiated settlement

                B.   Minitrial

                C.   Mediation

                D.   Conciliation

 

               

 

7) A ___________ is a court-appointed party who conducts a private trial and renders a judgment.

                A.   fact-finder

                B.   arbitrator

                C.   judicial referee

                D.   negotiator

 

               

 

8) What is a form of alternative dispute resolution that is often used when the parties involved do not want to face one another?

                A.   Arbitration

                B.   Fact-finding

                C.   Minitrial

                D.   Conciliation

 

               

 

9) Which of the following is true regarding mediation?

                A.   A mediator often meets with both parties at the same time.

                B.   A settlement agreement is never reached with a mediator.

                C.   A mediator does not make a decision or award.

                D.   If a settlement agreement is not reached in mediation, then the parties hire a new mediator.

 

               

 

10) There are no accountants on the board of the Oriole Corporation, a privately held corporation. The board routinely relies on a Certified Public Accountant (CPA) to explain the financial situation of the corporation. The board does not do an independent analysis of the CPA’s report. In these circumstances, the board is

                A.   violating a duty of loyalty

                B.   violating a duty to exercise due care

                C.   violating the business judgment rule

                D.   not violating any duty

 

 

 

11) Self-dealing by a director of a corporation can best be described as

                A.   A breach of a director’s duty of notification

                B.   A breach of a director’s duty of care

                C.   A breach of the Business Judgment Rule

                D.   There was no breach of duty

 

               

 

12) Which of the following is likely to be a breach of a corporate officer’s or director’s duty of care?

          A.   Failing to anticipate a precipitous drop in consumer demand of the company’s product

                B.   Failing to make a reasonable investigation of relevant facts

                C.   Failing to predict the unexpected startup of a new competitor

                D.   Failing to foresee a sudden rise in the interest rate

 

               

 

13) In what ways may officers and directors be protected by the corporation from liability for actions taken as an officer or director?

         A.   The officer or director must purchase personal liability insurance to cover such losses.

         B.   Have the corporation purchase liability insurance and indemnify the officers and directors.

         C.   Officers and directors cannot be protected from liability.

         D.   Officers and directors are automatically protected from liability by virtue of corporate.

 

               

 

14) If a plaintiff voluntarily participates in a risky activity that results in injury, what is the most likely defense to a claim that the plaintiff assumed the risk?

                A.   Contributory negligence

                B.   Defendant was negligent per se

                C.   Defendant assumed the risk under the “danger invites rescue” doctrine

                D.   Comparative negligence

 

               

 

15) Mark is the treasurer of Sky-Hi Tech Corporation and, as such, he is responsible for protecting the assets of the corporation. One of Mark’s subordinates, Jill, is in charge of reconciling the monthly corporate bank statements. Over a period of several months, Jill embezzled a large amount of money from Sky-Hi Tech, covering up the theft using her bank reconciliations. If Mark had adequately supervised Jill, she could not have embezzled this money. Mark’s actions (or inactions) constitute a breach of his duty of

                A.   due care

                B.   obedience

                C.   loyalty

                D.   good business judgment

 

               

 

16) Barry buys a new sports car. The car sits low to the ground and because of the styling, visibility to the rear is limited. About a month after Barry buys the car, he backs over his pet poodle as he is leaving for work. In his strict liability suit against the car manufacturer, Barry will

                A.   win because driving a sports car is an inherently dangerous activity

                B.   win on the basis of design defect

                C.   win on the basis of packaging defect because the car could have been packaged in a differently styled body

                D.   lose because he assumed the risk of backing up in a car when he could not see to the rear

 

               

 

17) If a judge rules that a party lost its case because of the Statute of Frauds, the judge has essentially stated which of the following?

 

                A.   The losing party purposely deceived the other party about a material fact.

                B.   The losing party will not be allowed to introduce evidence to contradict a written agreement.

                C.   The losing party cannot enforce an oral contract that should have been in writing.

                D.   The losing party was found by the court to have lied, and therefore will lose the case.

 

               

 

18) What does the parol evidence rule do?

                A.   It limits the ability of parties to written contracts from introducing certain evidence related to the contract.

                B.   It sets the rules for admissibility of evidence relating to releasing a criminal from a prison term.

                C.   It sets the general rules for the admissibility of evidence in criminal actions.

                D.   It determines which contracts are required to be in writing.

 

               

 

19) ABC LLC and XYZ Corp. entered into a contract whereby ABC is to supply XYZ with widgets. After receiving the first shipment of widgets, XYZ finds that the widgets, while meeting the physical standards specified in the contract, do not perform as XYZ anticipated. The contract is silent as to performance specifications, but XYZ suspects that ABC knew that it was manufacturing and supplying widgets that would not perform according to industry standard. XYZ initiates a lawsuit against ABC, alleging that ABC knowingly supplied defective widgets. What process will XYZ use to help it develop its case against ABC?

                A.   Pleadings

                B.   Motion for summary judgment

                C.   Discovery

                D.   Trial

 

               

 

20) Under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA), an employee’s benefits must vest

                A.   within 10 years

                B.   by the time of the employee’s retirement

                C.   in total within 5 years or gradually within 7 years

                D.   only as provided in the pension plan

 

 

 

21) Which of the following statutes provides that it is legal for employees to organize a union?

                A.   The Norris-LaGuardia Act

                B.   The National Labor Relations Act

                C.   The Labor-Management Relations Act

                D.   The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act

 

               

 

22) William was a factory worker at the Spruce Industries plant. When management found out that William is gay, he was fired. The plant’s action is

                A.   not prohibited under federal law

                B.   a violation of Title VII

                C.   a violation of the Equal Pay Act

                D.   a violation of the Americans with Disabilities Act

 

               

 

23) Janet is manager of a bank. She has all the qualifications to be promoted to bank manager. In fact, she is better qualified than any of the men being considered for the position. However, the owner of the bank believes that bank customers will not accept a woman as bank manager, so the owner promotes one of the males. The owner’s actions would best be described as what?

                A.   Quid pro quo

                B.   Hostile work environment

                C.   Gender discrimination

                D.   Pregnancy discrimination

 

               

 

24) Which one of the following statutes allows a prevailing party to recover attorney’s fees in an action against the government for an action of an agency?

                A.   The Freedom of Information Act

                B.   The Government Compensation Act

                C.   The Administrative Procedure Act

                D.   The Equal Access to Justice Act

 

               

 

25) Which of the following would prevent someone from acquiring land by adverse possession?

                A.   The person never had to fight the original owner to remain on the land.

                B.   The person lived on the land secretly so that the original owner would not find out he or she was there.

                C.   The person lived on the land without the original owner’s permission.

                D.   The person was the only person who lived on the land in question.

 

               

 

26) Which of the following would be classified as tangible personal property, as opposed to other property categories, such as fixtures or intangible property?

                A.   A freestanding desk

                B.   Built-in cabinets in an office

                C.   A copyright to a literary work

                D.   A field of corn

 

               

 

27) As the CEO of a high tech company, you become aware that your chief competitor is working on a new computer program that will revolutionize your industry. You know that if you can find out several key functions about the new product, your own programmers will be able to duplicate the function of the program without actually copying its code. Which of the following actions can you ethically take?

            A.   Paying the garbage company to deliver the competitor’s garbage to you

                B.   Hiring a former employee of the competitor and paying her a bonus to tell you the competitor’s secrets

                C.   Hiring a researcher to review all available information about the competitor, including patents, types and names of employees hired, reports by the competitor, including all SEC filings

                D.   Hacking into the competitor’s computer systems to find out what you need

 

               

 

28) From a practical perspective, what are some of the elements of Sarbanes-Oxley?

                A.   Ensuring transparency, accountability and internal controls

                B.   Ensuring companies are profitable

                C.   Ensuring that CEOs do not make more than 10 times the lowest paid employee

                D.   Ensuring that large shareholders do not have board representation

 

               

 

29) Under Title IX of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, the penalty for someone who certifies “any statements as set forth in subsections (a) and (b) of this section knowing that the periodic report accompanying the statement does not comport . . .” is

                A.   no more than $1,000,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 10 years, or both

                B.   no more than $500,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 6 months, or both

                C.   no more than $2,000,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 3 years, or both

                D.   no more than $5,000,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 20 years, or both

 

               

 

30) Which is prohibited under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?

                A.   High salaries for corporate executives

                B.   Using an independent accounting firm for audit purposes

                C.   Public companies making personal loans to their directors and executives

 

                D.   Directors and executives attending board meetings on a regular basis

Answer the following questions:

Analysis

What kinds of questions might McGraw-Hill have asked as part of determining the feasibility of the Primis

idea? Be sure to address the needs of the organization, end users (sales reps., faculty, students), IT specialists,

and the groups involved in producing the finished custom books.

How well did the systems approach work for the initial stages of the Primis system?

What could the team have done differently in the preliminary stages? How might this have affected the end

result?

Would you have implemented the system, armed with the information the team had at the time? Why or why

not?

Design

“Process engineering” is the design of business processes to achieve competitive advantage in cost, quality, speed, and service. Which of these advantages were driving the development of the Primis system for McGraw-Hill?

What types of systems design tools do you think McGraw-Hill used to develop the system’s functional requirements and technical specifications?

Business customers must perceive products/services are solutions to their problems. How did the Primis system design keep this objective in mind?

The Primis team knew that technology would change in the short and long run, affecting the design of the system. How did the team deal with the knowledge of this inevitable change and uncertainty?

System Development
9. Would prototyping have helped the Primis team? Why or why not?
10. What role should end users have played in the development of the system? 11. What change management techniques did McGraw-Hill use to increase the chances of success for the system? 12. Why was it important to consider the relationship of Primis to back-end systems at McGraw-Hill?

13. If you were the project manager for Primis, what would you have done differently? Explain your response.

Maintenance

If you were a professor considering adoption of a custom textbook for your students, which form would you

choose: black and white print, or color eBook? Support your answer.

Part of system maintenance is managing the growing volume of content in the Primis database. If you were

 

managing this content, what criteria might you use for determining what gets added? Since many print textbooks are revised every few years, how would this process affect contents in the Primis database?

1) Which of the following measures of central location is affected most by extreme values?        

A. Mean

               

B. Median

               

C. Mode

               

D. Geometric mean

 

 

 2) Which level of measurement is required for the median?  

A. Nominal

 

B. Ordinal

               

C. Interval

               

D. Ratio

 

 

 3) Which level of measurement is required for the mode?      

A. Nominal

               

B. Ordinal

               

C. Interval

               

D. Ratio

 

 

 4) In a set of observations, which measure of central tendency reports the value that occurs most often?               

A. Mean

               

B. Median

               

C. Mode

               

D. Geometric mean

 

 

 5) The weighted mean is a special case of what?      

A. Mean

 

B. Median

               

C. Mode

               

D. Geometric mean

 

 

 

 6) A sample of 5 companies were examined for changes in their relative market share. The results showed the following increases and decreases: –5, 10, 10, 5, –10.          

A. 8

               

B. 2

               

C. -2

               

D. 6

 

 

 7) The difference between the sample mean and the population mean is called the       

A. margin of error

               

B. population standard deviation

               

C. standard error of the mean

               

D. sampling error

 

 

 8) A local trade union consists of plumbers and electricians. Classified according to rank:

               

Apprentice            Journeyman         Master     Total

Plumbers               25           20           30           75

Electricians           15           40           20           75

40           60           50          

 

A member of the union is selected at random. Given that the person selected is an electrician, what is the probability that the person is a master?                

A.   .053

               

B.  .133

               

C.   .500

               

D.    .267

 

 

 9) Suppose a population consisted of 20 items. How many different samples of n = 3 are possible?         

A.   6840

               

B.   1140

               

C.   20

               

D.   120

 

 

 10) The mean and the variance are equal in             

A.   the normal distribution

               

B.    the binomial distribution

               

C.    the Poisson distribution

               

D.    the hypergeometric distribution

 

 

 

11) In the 1936 Presidential Election Franklin D. Roosevelt defeated Alfred E. Landon in a landslide vote. A Landon victory had been predicted by the Literary Digest, a magazine that ran the oldest, largest, and most widely publicized of the polls at the time. The Digest’s final prediction was based on 10 million sample ballots mailed to prospective voters, and 2.3 million were returned. The sample of voters was drawn from lists of automobile and telephone owners. Despite the massive size of this sample, it failed to predict a Roosevelt victory, being off the mark by 19 percentage points. The Digest was wrong because      

A.   the sample size, although large, was not large enough

               

B.    the right research questions were not asked

               

C.    respondents intentionally lied about their preferred candidate

               

D.     the sample used was not representative of the actual population at the time

 

 

 12) In a study on the effect of reinforcement on learning from a company online training program, two experimental treatments are planned: reinforcement given after every learning module, or reinforcement given after every two learning modules. Reinforcement is accomplished with the addition of more examples. Which one of the following control groups would serve best in this study?           

A.  A group that does not read any of the learning modules.

               

B.   A group that reads the modules using hardcopy only.

               

C.  A group that reads the learning modules, but does not receive reinforcement.

               

D. A group that reads the learning modules with random reinforcement.

 

 

 13) The central limit theorem is important to market researchers because it states that as sample sizes increase, the distribution of the sample ________ collected from consumers on any topic of interest being researched approaches the normal distribution.               

A.   medians

               

B.   means

               

C.   standard deviations

               

D.   variances

 

 

 14) To find confidence intervals for the mean of a normal distribution, the t distribution is usually used in practical applications instead of the standard normal distribution because    

A.   the mean of the population is not known

               

B.   the t distribution is more effective

               

C.   the variance of the population is usually not known

               

D.   the sample size is not known

 

 

 15) We wish to develop a confidence interval for the population mean. The population follows the normal distribution, the standard deviation of the population is 3, and we have a sample of 10 observations. We decide to use the 90% level of confidence. The appropriate value of to represent the level of confidence is          

A.   z=1.65

               

B.   z=1.96

               

C.    z=1.833

               

D.   z=1.812

 

 

 

16) Which of the following is a correct statement about a probability?

A. It may range from 0 to 1.

 B. It may assume negative values.

 C. It may be greater than 1.

 D. It cannot be reported to more than 1 decimal place.

 

17) The special rule of addition is used to combine

 A. independent events

B. mutually exclusive events

 C. events that total more than one

 D. events based on subjective probabilities

 

18) We use the general rule of multiplication to combine

 A. events that are not independent

 B. mutually exclusive events

C. events that total more than 1.00

 D. events based on subjective probabilities

 

19) A discrete variable

 A. is an example of a qualitative variable

 B. can assume only whole number values

 C. can assume only certain clearly separated values

D. cannot be negative

 

20) A nominal scale variable

A. usually involves ranking.

 B. cannot assume negative values

 C. has meaningful zero point

 D. is usually based on counting

 

21) The ratio scale of measurement

 A. usually the result of counting something

B. has meaningful zero point

 C. may assume negative values

 D. cannot have more than two categories

 

22) In the world of market research, the use of a questionnaire often plays a vital role in gaining useful business intelligence because

 A. it is a structured technique to collect secondary data

 B. it represents a way to ask anything you want from respondents and receive valid information

 C. it does not need to be tested

D. it can be used in conjunction with other techniques such as field interviews and focus groups to maximize data input

 

23) A Type I error is

 A. the correct decision

 B. a value determined from the test statistic

C. rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true

 D. accepting the null hypothesis when it is false

 

24) In a two-sample test of means for independent samples, we use the z distribution when

 A. the population standard deviations are equal

B. both populations have at least 4,000 observations

 C. both population standard deviations are known

 D. nB and n(1-B) are both greater than 5

 

25) Which of the following is a requirement for a two-sample test of proportions?

 A. The population standard deviations are equal.

 B. Both populations are positively skewed.

 C. Both samples are at least 30.

D. nB and n(1-B) are both greater than 5.

 

26) Bob is interested in opening a candy store in his town. He believes that his customers will spend an average of $75 or more in annual purchases (the alternative hypothesis). Bob hires a consultant to test this belief. The consultant tested this conjecture on a sample of 100 customers and found the p-value for the test statistic satisfied p > .25, then

 A. you would not reject the null hypothesis

 B. you would reject the null hypothesis for alpha= .01

C. you would reject the null hypothesis for alpha= .05

 D. you would reject the null hypothesis for alpha= .10

 

27) A carefully designed business experiment has just been concluded. Unfortunately, use of alpha = .05 indicated no significant differences among four treatments. What useful information can you supply future investigators when you report on this experiment?

A. The means are different but their variances are the same.

 B. The estimated variance (and its df) can be useful to future investigators.

 C. Pair-wise tests can be conducted to show significant differences.

 D. Significant differences can be reported by changing the type I error rate from .05 to .10, .20, or whatever is needed to declare significance.

 

28) A correlation matrix

A. shows all simple coefficients of correlation between variables

 B. shows only correlations that are zero

 C. shoes the correlations that are positive

 D. shows only the correlations that are statistically significant

 

29) The multiple sta1) Which of the following measures of central location is affected most by extreme values?        

A. Mean

               

B. Median

               

C. Mode

               

D. Geometric mean

 

 

 2) Which level of measurement is required for the median?  

A. Nominal

 

B. Ordinal

               

C. Interval

               

D. Ratio

 

 

 3) Which level of measurement is required for the mode?      

A. Nominal

               

B. Ordinal

               

C. Interval

               

D. Ratio

 

 

 4) In a set of observations, which measure of central tendency reports the value that occurs most often?               

A. Mean

               

B. Median

               

C. Mode

               

D. Geometric mean

 

 

 5) The weighted mean is a special case of what?      

A. Mean

 

B. Median

               

C. Mode

               

D. Geometric mean

 

 

 

 6) A sample of 5 companies were examined for changes in their relative market share. The results showed the following increases and decreases: –5, 10, 10, 5, –10.          

A. 8

               

B. 2

               

C. -2

               

D. 6

 

 

 7) The difference between the sample mean and the population mean is called the       

A. margin of error

               

B. population standard deviation

               

C. standard error of the mean

               

D. sampling error

 

 

 8) A local trade union consists of plumbers and electricians. Classified according to rank:

               

Apprentice            Journeyman         Master     Total

Plumbers               25           20           30           75

Electricians           15           40           20           75

40           60           50          

 

A member of the union is selected at random. Given that the person selected is an electrician, what is the probability that the person is a master?                

A.   .053

               

B.  .133

               

C.   .500

               

D.    .267

 

 

 9) Suppose a population consisted of 20 items. How many different samples of n = 3 are possible?         

A.   6840

               

B.   1140

               

C.   20

               

D.   120

 

 

 10) The mean and the variance are equal in             

A.   the normal distribution

               

B.    the binomial distribution

               

C.    the Poisson distribution

               

D.    the hypergeometric distribution

 

 

 

11) In the 1936 Presidential Election Franklin D. Roosevelt defeated Alfred E. Landon in a landslide vote. A Landon victory had been predicted by the Literary Digest, a magazine that ran the oldest, largest, and most widely publicized of the polls at the time. The Digest’s final prediction was based on 10 million sample ballots mailed to prospective voters, and 2.3 million were returned. The sample of voters was drawn from lists of automobile and telephone owners. Despite the massive size of this sample, it failed to predict a Roosevelt victory, being off the mark by 19 percentage points. The Digest was wrong because      

A.   the sample size, although large, was not large enough

               

B.    the right research questions were not asked

               

C.    respondents intentionally lied about their preferred candidate

               

D.     the sample used was not representative of the actual population at the time

 

 

 12) In a study on the effect of reinforcement on learning from a company online training program, two experimental treatments are planned: reinforcement given after every learning module, or reinforcement given after every two learning modules. Reinforcement is accomplished with the addition of more examples. Which one of the following control groups would serve best in this study?           

A.  A group that does not read any of the learning modules.

               

B.   A group that reads the modules using hardcopy only.

               

C.  A group that reads the learning modules, but does not receive reinforcement.

               

D. A group that reads the learning modules with random reinforcement.

 

 

 13) The central limit theorem is important to market researchers because it states that as sample sizes increase, the distribution of the sample ________ collected from consumers on any topic of interest being researched approaches the normal distribution.               

A.   medians

               

B.   means

               

C.   standard deviations

               

D.   variances

 

 

 14) To find confidence intervals for the mean of a normal distribution, the t distribution is usually used in practical applications instead of the standard normal distribution because    

A.   the mean of the population is not known

               

B.   the t distribution is more effective

               

C.   the variance of the population is usually not known

               

D.   the sample size is not known

 

 

 15) We wish to develop a confidence interval for the population mean. The population follows the normal distribution, the standard deviation of the population is 3, and we have a sample of 10 observations. We decide to use the 90% level of confidence. The appropriate value of to represent the level of confidence is          

A.   z=1.65

               

B.   z=1.96

               

C.    z=1.833

               

D.   z=1.812

 

 

 

16) Which of the following is a correct statement about a probability?

A. It may range from 0 to 1.

 B. It may assume negative values.

 C. It may be greater than 1.

 D. It cannot be reported to more than 1 decimal place.

 

17) The special rule of addition is used to combine

 A. independent events

B. mutually exclusive events

 C. events that total more than one

 D. events based on subjective probabilities

 

18) We use the general rule of multiplication to combine

 A. events that are not independent

 B. mutually exclusive events

C. events that total more than 1.00

 D. events based on subjective probabilities

 

19) A discrete variable

 A. is an example of a qualitative variable

 B. can assume only whole number values

 C. can assume only certain clearly separated values

D. cannot be negative

 

20) A nominal scale variable

A. usually involves ranking.

 B. cannot assume negative values

 C. has meaningful zero point

 D. is usually based on counting

 

21) The ratio scale of measurement

 A. usually the result of counting something

B. has meaningful zero point

 C. may assume negative values

 D. cannot have more than two categories

 

22) In the world of market research, the use of a questionnaire often plays a vital role in gaining useful business intelligence because

 A. it is a structured technique to collect secondary data

 B. it represents a way to ask anything you want from respondents and receive valid information

 C. it does not need to be tested

D. it can be used in conjunction with other techniques such as field interviews and focus groups to maximize data input

 

23) A Type I error is

 A. the correct decision

 B. a value determined from the test statistic

C. rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true

 D. accepting the null hypothesis when it is false

 

24) In a two-sample test of means for independent samples, we use the z distribution when

 A. the population standard deviations are equal

B. both populations have at least 4,000 observations

 C. both population standard deviations are known

 D. nB and n(1-B) are both greater than 5

 

25) Which of the following is a requirement for a two-sample test of proportions?

 A. The population standard deviations are equal.

 B. Both populations are positively skewed.

 C. Both samples are at least 30.

D. nB and n(1-B) are both greater than 5.

 

26) Bob is interested in opening a candy store in his town. He believes that his customers will spend an average of $75 or more in annual purchases (the alternative hypothesis). Bob hires a consultant to test this belief. The consultant tested this conjecture on a sample of 100 customers and found the p-value for the test statistic satisfied p > .25, then

 A. you would not reject the null hypothesis

 B. you would reject the null hypothesis for alpha= .01

C. you would reject the null hypothesis for alpha= .05

 D. you would reject the null hypothesis for alpha= .10

 

27) A carefully designed business experiment has just been concluded. Unfortunately, use of alpha = .05 indicated no significant differences among four treatments. What useful information can you supply future investigators when you report on this experiment?

A. The means are different but their variances are the same.

 B. The estimated variance (and its df) can be useful to future investigators.

 C. Pair-wise tests can be conducted to show significant differences.

 D. Significant differences can be reported by changing the type I error rate from .05 to .10, .20, or whatever is needed to declare significance.

 

28) A correlation matrix

A. shows all simple coefficients of correlation between variables

 B. shows only correlations that are zero

 C. shoes the correlations that are positive

 D. shows only the correlations that are statistically significant

 

29) The multiple standard error of estimate is

 A. the measure of variability to the prediction

 B. negative when one of the net regression coefficients is zero

C. found by calculating SSR/SS total

 D. the measure of accuracy of the prediction

 

30) A dummy variable or indicator variable

 A. may assume only a value of 0 or 1

B. is another term for the dependent variable

 C. is a quantitative variable

 D. is a variable at a ratio or interval level of measurement

 ndard error of estimate is

 A. the measure of variability to the prediction

 B. negative when one of the net regression coefficients is zero

C. found by calculating SSR/SS total

 D. the measure of accuracy of the prediction

 

30) A dummy variable or indicator variable

 A. may assume only a value of 0 or 1

B. is another term for the dependent variable

 C. is a quantitative variable

 D. is a variable at a ratio or interval level of measurement

 

 

BUS 518  Assignment 1 – A Peaceful Evacuation- Building a Multi-Project Battalion by Leading Upward (New)

 

Read the case study titled “A Peaceful Evacuation: Building a Multi-Project Battalion by Leading Upward.” before starting this assignment. 

 

Write a 3-5 pages paper in which you:

 

Describe the leadership style that Lieutenant Colonel Yaron exhibited as the commander of a battalion for the evacuation operation. Provide three (3) examples of his leadership actions and behavior. Discuss the pros and cons in each example you describe to support the response. 

Analyze the leadership style that Lieutenant Colonel Daniel exhibited as he took center stage to lead this complex military operation. Provide three (3) examples of his leadership actions and behavior, assessing the pros and cons in each example you describe to support the response.

Compare and contrast the leadership styles of Lieutenant Colonel Yaron and Lieutenant Colonel Daniel. Provide three (3) examples of the similarities and differences between these project leaders, and discuss how each leader might address contemporary leadership issues and challenges in Israel today.  

Discuss Lieutenant Colonel Yaron and Lieutenant Colonel Daniel interrelationship using Jung theory and the four (4) personality traits. Provide three (3) examples of how Lieutenant Colonel Yaron and Lieutenant Colonel Daniel personality and leadership style might enhance or hinder team performance for the complex military operation in this case study.  

Your assignment must:

 

Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.

Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

 

Apply the concepts of project leadership to implement sound leadership practices and effectively lead high-performance teams in a project environment.

Determine the most appropriate leadership style (e.g., directive, consultative, participative, or delegative) in a project environment to effectively manage the project.

Analyze the project team using Jung theory and the four personality traits to understand  human behavior and motivate team members

Use technology and information resources to research issues in project management leadership.

Write clearly and concisely about project management leadership using proper writing mechanics.