HCS 440 Week 3 Individual Assignment National Health Care Spending Paper

Write a 1,250- to 1,750-word paper in which you explain various elements of national health care spending in the United States. Include information on the following:

National Health Care Spending Paper

A.Title page;

B.Identify the current dollar level of national health care expenditures;

C.Discuss whether you feel this spending level is too much or not enough;

D.Where, in your opinion, as a nation, should we add or cut, and why;

E.How are the public’s health care needs paid for by various payers indicating the percent of total expenditures they represent, i.e. government, private, self pay;

F.What is the major future economic “challenge” for the health care system;

G.Why must this major “challenge” must be addressed;

H.How do you envision this major challenge will be economically addressed;

I.Conclusion;

J.References.

Format Your paper should be organized so that each question, B – H, is a separate subheading followed with the discussion. Think of each question as a chapter in a book. Paper is to conform to format as described in the “Assignment Format – Easy Version” and the Wk 3 Individual Assignment Outline document posted in the Course Materials forum located just below the Chat Room.

Assignment must have at least two authoritative published references.

The Conclusion should sum the entire paper discussion.

Include at least three authoritative published references that support your position.

 

Post your assignment under the Assignments Tab Section on your student web page. Post an Individual Certificate of Originality along with your assignment – do not include the Certificate as part of your assignment.

MGT 445 FINAL EXAM

1. In distributive bargaining, negotiators view tradeoffs as a “zero-sum” game.

a. True

 b.False

2. A “win-win” negotiation goal would best describe the integrative negotiation style.

a. True

b.       False

3.   Which one of the following is an effective technique for dealing with hard-ball tactics?

a. Fight fire with fire

b. Threaten and bluff until the other party is intimidated

c. Plead for mercy

d. Complain to the other party’s constituents

e. Ignore them

 

4.         Which of the following approaches is inconsistent with interest-based negotiation?

a. Separating the people from the problem

b. Identifying shared interests

c. Fully exploring the problem

d. “Low-balling” and “high-balling” opening offers

e. Inventing options for mutual gain

 

 

5.All of the following arilwell- regarded approaches to ethical reasoning, except

a.           QDuty

b.           D Social contract

c.          D “Personalistic”

d.          D End results

e.           D Absolute ethics

6.   The following are true of coalitions, except

a.          D They rarely start with a founder

b.          D They build by adding one member at a time

c.          n They need to achieve critical mass

d.          D They exclude members

e.          S They sometimes form quietly and disband quickly

7.   Which of the following would be an incorrect statement about multi-party negotiations?

a.          The number of parties greatly influences the process

b.           D Information exchange tends to be more complex
c.      The social environment, remains static

d,          Procedural complexity adds to the negotiation challenges

e.           They are strategically more complex

8,   Which of the following best describes the conflict type when disagreements center on personal beliefs and deeply held values?

a.           D Nuisances

b.          D Data

c.           Values

d.          D Attribution

e.                    Control

9.   To maximize the potential for a successful resolution, prudent conflict managers analyze and consider the interests of which of the following stakeholders?

a.           D Agents

b.           D Constituents

c.           n Advocates

d.          El Parties

e.           n All of the above

10. The “bottom line” a disputant is seeking when resolving conflict is best described as which of the following?

a.           D Principle

b.           D Position

c.           D Interests

d.          D Needs

e.           Aspiration

 

11. Which of the following elements need not be considered when assessing the negotiation environme of a foreign nation?

a.          D Legal pluralism

b.          D Instability and change

c.          D Political pluralism

d.        Cultural differences

e.   None of the above

12. Given the complexity and uncertainty surrounding global business negotiations, it is particularly important that prudent negotiators do which of the following?

a.          H Assess their “BATNA” before commencing negotiations

b.          Arrange their travel itineraries well in advance of negotiations

c.         Avoid any form of conflict or competition

d.     Avoid showing weakness by creating options for their opponents during negotiation

e.         All of the above

13.        In which of the following cultures would a friendly, trusting, and relationship-building negotiation
protocol be highly valued?

a.. Mexican

b.  Italian

c.russian
d. Japanese

e.         Brazilian

14.        While important, culture is rarely a significant factor in assessing the probability of success in a global
negotiation.

a.           True

b.           False

15. “E-Negotiations” and similar technological advances effectively remove the need for negotiators tc
travel to their markets to maintain personal contact with customers and to assess the local                                                                                                                                                                              ss

environment.

a.           True

b.           False

16. Name the top ten ways culture affects negotiations (5 points). Vou must list all fen to receive credit.

Negotiating Goal: Contract or Relationship

 

Negotiating Attitude: Win/Lose or Win/Win

 Personal Style: Formal or Informal

Communication: Direct or Indirect?

 

Sensitivity to Time: High or Low?

Emotionalism: High or low?

Form of agreement: General or specific?

Building an Agreement: bottom up or top down?

Team Organization: One leader or group consensus?

Risk taking: High or Low?

 

 

HRM 300 Week 3 Equal Employment Opportunity and Employee Rights Review Paper

Learning Team Assignment: Equal Employment Opportunity and Employee Rights Review Paper (Due Day 7 – Monday)

·Use the following lists to complete the assignment (and read the assignment deliverables below this chart):

List A

Equal Employment Acts

List B

Employee Rights Acts and Issues

Civil Rights Act of 1964

Fair Credit Reporting Act

Executive Order (E.O.) 11246

Privacy Act

Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967

Drug-Free Workplace Act

Executive Order 11478

Employee Polygraph Protection Act

Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972

Worker Adjustment and Retaining Notification Act

Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1978

Whistle-blowing

Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978

Employee Monitoring

Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990

Drug Testing

Civil Rights Act of 1991

Workplace Security

Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993

 

·Select one law from List A and one law or issue from List B.

·Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper addressing the following:

oProvide a general summary describing your chosen laws or issues.

oFor each selected law or issue, locate a present-day court case that has challenged your selected law or issue.

oWhat are the implications for HR departments in managing the employer-employee relationship in the context of the law or issue?

 

·Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

LDR 531 Final Exam 2

1. What are the three primary determinants of behavior on which organizational behavior focuses?

A. profit structure, organizational complexity, job satisfaction

B. individuals, profit structure, and job satisfaction

C. individuals, groups, and job satisfaction

D. groups, structure, and profit structure

E. individuals, groups, and structure

 

2. Which behavioral science discipline is most focused on understanding individual behavior?

A. sociology

B. social psychology

C. psychology

D. anthropology

E. organizational behavior

 

3. When the team he supports wins the World Cup, Detleb feels a surge of joy, which turns into a feeling of satisfaction that lasts for days. What is one of the reasons that the feeling of satisfaction might be categorized as a mood and not an emotion?

A. It has a lengthy duration

B. It is not the result of something that Detleb himself has done.

C. It is brought about by a specific event.

D. It is a positive feeling.

E. It is a very strong feeling.

 

4. Which of the following statements about personality is correct?

A. Personality is an aggregate whole.

B. Personality is the primary source of emotions in most people.

C. Personality is a part of a person.

D. Personality is for the most part comprised of traits that cannot be measured.

E. Personality is always stable

 

5. What does the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator classification of E or I stand for?

 

A. Extroverted or introverted

B. Sane or reflective

C. Emotional or introverted

D. Emotional or intuitive

E. Extroverted or intuitive

 

6. Which of the following is not generally true?

A. Satisfaction is the major determinant of a worker’s OCB

B. Enterprises with a greater percentage of satisfied workers are more effective than those with a smaller percentage of satisfied workers.

C. Productive workers are satisfied workers.

D. Satisfaction comes down to fairness of outcomes, treatments, or procedures.

E. Satisfied workers are productive workers.

 

 

 

 7. ________ results in a level of performance that is greater than the sum of the individual input.

A. Energy

B. Inversion

C. Enthusiasm

D. Initiative

E. Synergy

 

8. Which of the following helps explain the current popularity of teams?

A. Teams promote socialization.

B. Teams are easier to manage.

C. Teams are less expensive.

D. Teams are a way to better utilize employee talents.

E. Teams are very efficient.

 

9. What sort of group is defined by the organization’s structure?

A. Interest

B. Informal

C. Friendship

D. Task

E. Formal

 

10. What will happen if group cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low?

A. Productivity will be low.

B. Internal conflict will be high.

C. Productivity will be high

D. Internal conflict will be low

E. It will have little effect on internal conflict or productivity.

 

11. Which of the following was the major finding of Zimbardo’s simulated prison experiment?

A. An individual’s emotions and the behavioral responses to those emotions are congruent.

B. Status differences between groups will always result in conflict between those groups.

C. Individuals can rapidly assimilate new roles very different from their inherent personalities.

D. Group cohesiveness is so important that individuals will restrain their natural impulses to remain part of the group.

E. When given the opportunity, people will tend to act in an oppressive manner to those around them.

 

12. Which theory differentiates leaders from nonleaders by focusing on personal qualities and characteristics?

A. Contingency theory

B. Fiedler’s perspective

C. LPC

D. Characteristic theory

E. Trait theory

 

13. Which of the following statements regarding leadership is true?

A. All leaders are hierarchically superior to followers.

B. All leaders are managers.

C. All managers are leaders.

D. Formal rights enable managers to lead effectively.

E. Nonsanctioned leadership is as important as or more important than formal influence

14. Leadership is best defined as __________.

A.   coordinating and staffing the organization and handling day-to-day problems

B.   the ability to influence a group in goal achievement

C.   implementing the vision and strategy provided by management

D.   keeping order and consistency in the midst of change

E.   not a relevant variable in modern organizations

 

 15. Which model represents the theory that effective group performance depends on the proper match between a leader’s style and the degree to which the situation gives control to the leader?

A. Leader-Member Exchange Model

B. Fiedler’s Contingency Model

C. Hersey and Blanchard’s Situational Leadership Model

D. Vroom and Yetton’s Leader-Participation Model

E. None of the above

 

16. Three situational criteria identified in the Fiedler model are __________

A. task structure, leadership ability, and group conflict

B. job requirements, position power, and leadership ability

C. leader-member relations, task structure, and position power

D. charisma, influence, and leader-member relations

E. emotional intelligence, group orientation, and employee status

 

17. The leadership behaviors identified by the path-goal theory are __________.

A. directive, participative, supportive, and laissez-faire

B. supportive, employee-oriented, laissez-faire, and participative

C. participative, achievement-oriented, directive, and supportive

D. achievement-oriented, supportive, humanistic, and directive

E. affective, cognitive, and behavioral

 

18. According to Hersey and Blanchard, readiness encompasses the __________.

A. degree of confidence, trust, and respect members have in their leader

B. amount of influence a leader has over variables such as hiring, firing, and salaries

C. level of morale and satisfaction of the employees

D. ability and willingness of the followers to accomplish a task

E. all of the above

 

19. Which path-goal leadership style leads to greater satisfaction when tasks are ambiguous or stressful?

A. Mixed

B. Participative

C. Reactive

D. Supportive

E. Directive

 

20. Which of the following is not a primary force for change in organizations?

A. Social trends

B. Decreasing skill sets

C. The nature of the workforce

D. Economic shocks

E. Technology

 

 

21. An example of change in competition is __________.

A. increased interest in urban living

B. Iraq–U.S. war

C. a decrease in interest rates

D. collapse of Enron Corporation

E. growth of e-commerce

 

22. The application of direct threats or force on resisters is called __________.

A. coercion

B. manipulation

C. destruction

D. cooptation

E. exploitation

 

23. Which tactic to overcome resistance to change is a relatively easy way to gain the support of adversaries, but may backfire if the targets become aware of the tactic?

A. Coercion

B. Manipulation

C. Cooperation

D. Conciliation

E. Negotiation

 

24. Who developed a three-step model for change that included unfreezing, movement, and refreezing?

A. Lawrence Summers

B. Douglas Surber

C. Kurt Lewin

D. David McClelland

E.  John Kotter

 

25. The basis by which jobs are grouped together is termed __________.

A. centralization

B. specialization

C. departmentalization

D. bureaucracy

E. social clustering

 

26. In the late 1940s, most manufacturing jobs in industrialized countries were being done with high _________.

A. structuralization

B. work specialization

C. generalized structure

D. decentralization

E. departmentalization

 

27. For much of the first half of the 20th century, managers viewed work specialization as __________.

A. difficult to implement without automation technology

B. an unending source of increased productivity

C. an effective solution to over-centralization

D. a frustrating cause of reduced product output

E. a means to encourage employee satisfaction

28. Which of the following is not a characteristic of organizational culture?

A. Team orientation

B. Formality orientation

C. Outcome orientation

D. Innovation

E. Attention to detail

 

29. __________ is a shared system of meaning held by the organization’s members that distinguishes the organization from other organizations.

A. Formalization

B. Corporate image

C. Socialization

D. Institutionalization

E. Organizational culture

 

30. Leaders achieve goals, and power is __________.

A. a goal in and of itself

B. a strong influence on leaders’ goals

C. a means of achieving goals

D. defined by leaders’ hopes and aspirations

E. usually used by poor leaders

 

31. The most important aspect of power is probably that it __________.

A. is counterproductive

B. involves control

C. tends to corrupt people

D. is needed to get things done in an organization

E. is a function of dependency

 

 

PSY 320 Week 4 Individual Assignment Job Redesign and Workplace Rewards Assessment Paper

The Job Redesign and Workplace Rewards Assessment is a two-part project that asks you to assess the current state of your workplace environment in regard to how it motivates—or fails to motivate—employees to affect increased job satisfaction and workplace productivity.

Part One:

Prepare a 1,750- to 2,100-word assessment focusing on a selected job or department in your company in regard to the system of goal-setting, performance evaluation, and workplace rewards that impact productivity, both positively and negatively,and job satisfaction, as related to the selected job or department. Address the following:

·Identify the current major components, tasks, or responsibilities of the selected position. Does the job currently allow any self-management or sense of choice? Does the position cultivate a sense of intrinsic motivation?

·Briefly discuss current company-wide rewards, such as bonus plans or profit-sharing, and one-to-one rewards, such praise or recognition. Examine and evaluate if these rewards are effective in motivating behavior for this position.

·Identify how goals are used at your company with regardto the selected position. Be sure to consider what kinds of goals are set, how the goals are set, and if the goal system is effective for this position.

Part Two:

Prepare a 7- to 10-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation based on the evaluation conducted in Part One. Address the various ways a selected position or job could be redesignedto increase job satisfaction and productivity. The proposed modification can be made to the selected position or department itself or to the company’s broader system of goal-setting, performance evaluation, and workplace rewards. Be sure to include the following:

·Explore the various job redesign approaches to revise the selected position.

·Describe the major components, tasks, or responsibilities of the selected position after it has been redesigned.

·What recommendations would you make to improve your company’s reward system with regard to this position?

·What recommendations would you make to improve the goal system to increase productivity and job satisfaction for this redesigned position?

·Recommend an implementation plan for bringing the redesigned position into the organization. Consider factors that might impact the intrinsic or extrinsic motivation of an employee.

HCS 451 Week 4 Learning Team Assignment Organizational Performance Management Paper and Table

Each Learning Team member must select a different type of health care organization to study for the purpose of this group assignment. You are encouraged to select adifferent type of organization from the one chosen in the Week Three individual assignment but it’s not necessary.Group members compare their chosen organizations to complete the table and paper.

Resources: Organizational Performance Management Table and Paper Grading Criteria and University of Phoenix Material: Organizational Performance Management Table

Conduct a group discussion and address the following points:

·Summarize the type of health care organization you selected.

·Compare the main regulatory and accreditation standards that apply to each type of organization and identify standards that apply broadly to most or all types of health care organizations.

·Discuss the influence of regulatory and accreditation standards on performance-management systems.

·Discuss how the performance-management systems affect risk and quality management in each type of organization.

·Identify key areas in the organization that will have direct responsibility for carrying out the day-to-day responsibilities associated with the regulations or standards.

·Identify other areas in the organization that will be indirectly affected by the regulations or standards.

·Outline what oversight activities you could use to ensure that the regulatory and accreditation requirements are being implemented and are achieving the desired results.

Collaborate to write a 1,400- to 1,750-word paper in which you address the following points:

·Address the similarities and differences among the types of organizations.

·Propose how each organization will monitor performance, achieve regulatory and accreditation compliance, and improve overall organizational performance.

·Describe ways each organization will communicate with leadership to ensure alignment of organizational goals and gain buy-in from staff to achieve compliance with the standards and requirements issued by regulatory and accreditation bodies.

·Determine how compliance with the regulations and development of risk- and quality-management systems for each type of organization contribute to the organization’s overall performance-management system.

Include at least four sources, three from the University Library and one from either the course textbooks or this week’s Electronic Reserve Readings. Prepare a list of all resources used in your research.

Format the paper and reference list consistent with APA guidelines. Include the Organizational Performance Management Table as an appendix to the paper.

·Document active participation in the learning team project—1 point is possible. Submit this as a separate document in the team forum.

 

 

 

 

FIN 534 Quiz 7 week 8

A company expects sales to increase during the coming year, and it is using the AFN equation to forecast the additional capital that it must raise. Which of the following conditions would cause the AFN to increase?

Answer

The company previously thought its fixed assets were being operated at full capacity, but now it learns that it actually has excess capacity.

The company increases its dividend payout ratio.

The company begins to pay employees monthly rather than weekly.

The company’s profit margin increases.

The company decides to stop taking discounts on purchased materials.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Answer

Once a firm has defined its purpose, scope, and objectives, it must develop a strategy or strategies for achieving its goals. The statement of corporate strategies sets forth detailed plans rather than broad approaches for achieving a firm’s goals.

A firm’s corporate purpose states the general philosophy of the business and provides managers with specific operational objectives.

Operating plans provide management with detailed implementation guidance, consistent with the corporate strategy, to help meet the corporate objectives. These operating plans can be developed for any time horizon, but many companies use a 5-year horizon.

A firm’s mission statement defines its lines of business and geographic area of operations.

The corporate scope is a condensed version of the entire set of strategic plans.

Last year Wei Guan Inc. had $350 million of sales, and it had $270 million of fixed assets that were used at 65% of capacity. In millions, by how much could Wei Guan’s sales increase before it is required to increase its fixed assets?

Answer

$170.09

$179.04

$188.46

$197.88

$207.78

Last year Godinho Corp. had $250 million of sales, and it had $75 million of fixed assets that were being operated at 80% of capacity. In millions, how large could sales have been if the company had operated at full capacity?

Answer

$312.5

$328.1

$344.5

$361.8

$379.8

The term “additional funds needed (AFN)” is generally defined as follows:

Answer

Funds that are obtained automatically from routine business transactions.

Funds that a firm must raise externally from non-spontaneous sources, i.e., by borrowing or by selling new stock to support operations.

The amount of assets required per dollar of sales.

The amount of internally generated cash in a given year minus the amount of cash needed to acquire the new assets needed to support growth.

A forecasting approach in which the forecasted percentage of sales for each balance sheet account is held constant.

Spontaneous funds are generally defined as follows:

Answer

Assets required per dollar of sales.

A forecasting approach in which the forecasted percentage of sales for each item is held constant.

Funds that a firm must raise externally through short-term or long-term borrowing and/or by selling new common or preferred stock.

Funds that arise out of normal business operations from its suppliers, employees, and the government, and they include immediate increases in accounts payable, accrued wages, and accrued taxes.

The amount of cash raised in a given year minus the amount of cash needed to finance the additional capital expenditures and working capital needed to support the firm’s growth.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Answer

Any forecast of financial requirements involves determining how much money the firm will need, and this need is determined by adding together increases in assets and spontaneous liabilities and then subtracting operating income.

The AFN equation for forecasting funds requirements requires only a forecast of the firm’s balance sheet. Although a forecasted income statement may help clarify the results, income statement data are not essential because funds needed relate only to the balance sheet.

Dividends are paid with cash taken from the accumulated retained earnings account, hence dividend policy does not affect the AFN forecast.

A negative AFN indicates that retained earnings and spontaneous liabilities are far more than sufficient to finance the additional assets needed.

If the ratios of assets to sales and spontaneous liabilities to sales do not remain constant, then the AFN equation will provide more accurate forecasts than the forecasted financial statements method.

Jefferson City Computers has developed a forecasting model to estimate its AFN for the upcoming year. All else being equal, which of the following factors is most likely to lead to an increase of the additional funds needed (AFN)?

Answer

A sharp increase in its forecasted sales.

A switch to a just-in-time inventory system and outsourcing production.

The company reduces its dividend payout ratio.

The company switches its materials purchases to a supplier that sells on terms of 1/5, net 90, from a supplier whose terms are 3/15, net 35.

The company discovers that it has excess capacity in its fixed assets.

Which of the following is NOT a key element in strategic planning as it is described in the text?

Answer

The mission statement.

The statement of the corporation’s scope.

The statement of cash flows.

The statement of corporate objectives.

The corporation’s strategies.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Answer

Since accounts payable and accrued liabilities must eventually be paid off, as these accounts increase, AFN as calculated by the AFN equation must also increase.

Suppose a firm is operating its fixed assets at below 100% of capacity, but it has no excess current assets. Based on the AFN equation, its AFN will be larger than if it had been operating with excess capacity in both fixed and current assets.

If a firm retains all of its earnings, then it cannot require any additional funds to support sales growth.

Additional funds needed (AFN) are typically raised using a combination of notes payable, long-term debt, and common stock. Such funds are non-spontaneous in the sense that they require explicit financing decisions to obtain them.

If a firm has a positive free cash flow, then it must have either a zero or a negative AFN.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Answer

When we use the AFN equation, we assume that the ratios of assets and liabilities to sales (A0*/S0 and L0*/S0) vary from year to year in a stable, predictable manner.

When fixed assets are added in large, discrete units as a company grows, the assumption of constant ratios is more appropriate than if assets are relatively small and can be added in small increments as sales grow.

Firms whose fixed assets are “lumpy” frequently have excess capacity, and this should be accounted for in the financial forecasting process.

For a firm that uses lumpy assets, it is impossible to have small increases in sales without expanding fixed assets.

There are economies of scale in the use of many kinds of assets. When economies occur the ratios are likely to remain constant over time as the size of the firm increases. The Economic Ordering Quantity model for establishing inventory levels demonstrates this relationship.

Which of the following is NOT one of the steps taken in the financial planning process?

Answer

Forecast the funds that will be generated internally. If internal funds are insufficient to cover the required new investment, then identify sources from which the required external capital can be raised.

Monitor operations after implementing the plan to spot any deviations and then take corrective actions.

Determine the amount of capital that will be needed to support the plan.

Develop a set of forecasted financial statements under alternative versions of the operating plan in order to analyze the effects of different operating procedures on projected profits and financial ratios.

Consult with key competitors about the optimal set of prices to charge, i.e., the prices that will maximize profits for our firm and its competitors.

Last year Handorf-Zhu Inc. had $850 million of sales, and it had $425 million of fixed assets that were used at only 60% of capacity. What is the maximum sales growth rate the company could achieve before it had to increase its fixed assets?

Answer

54.30%

57.16%

60.17%

63.33%

66.67%

Which of the following assumptions is embodied in the AFN equation?

Answer

None of the firm’s ratios will change.

Accounts payable and accruals are tied directly to sales.

Common stock and long-term debt are tied directly to sales.

Fixed assets, but not current assets, are tied directly to sales.

Last year’s total assets were not optimal for last year’s sales.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Answer

The sustainable growth rate is the maximum achievable growth rate without the firm having to raise external funds. In other words, it is the growth rate at which the firm’s AFN equals zero.

If a firm’s assets are growing at a positive rate, but its retained earnings are not increasing, then it would be impossible for the firm’s AFN to be negative.

If a firm increases its dividend payout ratio in anticipation of higher earnings, but sales and earnings actually decrease, then the firm’s actual AFN must, mathematically, exceed the previously calculated AFN.

Higher sales usually require higher asset levels, and this leads to what we call AFN. However, the AFN will be zero if the firm chooses to retain all of its profits, i.e., to have a zero dividend payout ratio.

Dividend policy does not affect the requirement for external funds based on the AFN equation.

Which of the following statements is NOT CORRECT?

Answer

The corporate valuation model can be used both for companies that pay dividends and those that do not pay dividends.

The corporate valuation model discounts free cash flows by the required return on equity.

The corporate valuation model can be used to find the value of a division.

An important step in applying the corporate valuation model is forecasting the firm’s pro forma financial statements.

Free cash flows are assumed to grow at a constant rate beyond a specified date in order to find the horizon, or terminal, value.

Leak Inc. forecasts the free cash flows (in millions) shown below. If the weighted average cost of capital is 11% and FCF is expected to grow at a rate of 5% after Year 2, what is the Year 0 value of operations, in millions? Assume that the ROIC is expected to remain constant in Year 2 and beyond (and do not make any half-year adjustments).

Year: 1 2

Free cash flow: -$50 $100

Answer

$1,456

$1,529

$1,606

$1,686

$1,770

Akyol Corporation is undergoing a restructuring, and its free cash flows are expected to be unstable during the next few years. However, FCF is expected to be $50 million in Year 5, i.e., FCF at t = 5 equals $50 million, and the FCF growth rate is expected to be constant at 6% beyond that point. If the weighted average cost of capital is 12%, what is the horizon value (in millions) at t = 5?

Answer

$719

$757

$797

$839

$883

Based on the corporate valuation model, the value of a company’s operations is $900 million. Its balance sheet shows $70 million in accounts receivable, $50 million in inventory, $30 million in short-term investments that are unrelated to operations, $20 million in accounts payable, $110 million in notes payable, $90 million in long-term debt, $20 million in preferred stock, $140 million in retained earnings, and $280 million in total common equity. If the company has 25 million shares of stock outstanding, what is the best estimate of the stock’s price per share?

Answer

$23.00

$25.56

$28.40                                                                   

$31.24

$34.36

Suppose Leonard, Nixon, & Shull Corporation’s projected free cash flow for next year is $100,000, and FCF is expected to grow at a constant rate of 6%. If the company’s weighted average cost of capital is 11%, what is the value of its operations?

Answer

$1,714,750

$1,805,000

$1,900,000

$2,000,000

$2,100,000

Based on the corporate valuation model, Bernile Inc.’s value of operations is $750 million. Its balance sheet shows $50 million of short-term investments that are unrelated to operations, $100 million of accounts payable, $100 million of notes payable, $200 million of long-term debt, $40 million of common stock (par plus paid-in-capital), and $160 million of retained earnings. What is the best estimate for the firm’s value of equity, in millions?

Answer

$429

$451

$475

$500

$525

Zhdanov Inc. forecasts that its free cash flow in the coming year, i.e., at t = 1, will be -$10 million, but its FCF at t = 2 will be $20 million. After Year 2, FCF is expected to grow at a constant rate of 4% forever. If the weighted average cost of capital is 14%, what is the firm’s value of operations, in millions?

Answer

$158

$167

$175

$184

$193

Which of the following does NOT always increase a company’s market value?

Answer

Increasing the expected growth rate of sales.

Increasing the expected operating profitability (NOPAT/Sales).

Decreasing the capital requirements (Capital/Sales).

Decreasing the weighted average cost of capital.

Increasing the expected rate of return on invested capital.

Based on the corporate valuation model, the value of a company’s operations is $1,200 million. The company’s balance sheet shows $80 million in accounts receivable, $60 million in inventory, and $100 million in short-term investments that are unrelated to operations. The balance sheet also shows $90 million in accounts payable, $120 million in notes payable, $300 million in long-term debt, $50 million in preferred stock, $180 million in retained earnings, and $800 million in total common equity. If the company has 30 million shares of stock outstanding, what is the best estimate of the stock’s price per share?

Answer

$24.90

$27.67

$30.43

$33.48

$36.82

Simonyan Inc. forecasts a free cash flow of $40 million in Year 3, i.e., at t = 3, and it expects FCF to grow at a constant rate of 5% thereafter. If the weighted average cost of capital is 10% and the cost of equity is 15%, what is the horizon value, in millions at t = 3?

Answer

$840

$882

$926

$972

$1,021

Based on the corporate valuation model, Hunsader’s value of operations is $300 million. The balance sheet shows $20 million of short-term investments that are unrelated to operations, $50 million of accounts payable, $90 million of notes payable, $30 million of long-term debt, $40 million of preferred stock, and $100 million of common equity. The company has 10 million shares of stock outstanding. What is the best estimate of the stock’s price per share?

Answer

$13.72

$14.44

$15.20

$16.00

$16.80

A company forecasts the free cash flows (in millions) shown below. The weighted average cost of capital is 13%, and the FCFs are expected to continue growing at a 5% rate after Year 3. Assuming that the ROIC is expected to remain constant in Year 3 and beyond, what is the Year 0 value of operations, in millions?

Year: 1 2 3

Free cash flow: -$15 $10 $40

Answer

$315

$331

$348

$367

$386

Suppose Yon Sun Corporation’s free cash flow during the just-ended year (t = 0) was $100 million, and FCF is expected to grow at a constant rate of 5% in the future. If the weighted average cost of capital is 15%, what is the firm’s value of operations, in millions?

Answer

$948

$998

$1,050

$1,103

$1,158

Which of the following is NOT normally regarded as being a good reason to establish an ESOP?

Answer

To increase worker productivity.

To enable the firm to borrow at a below-market interest rate.

To make it easier to grant stock options to employees.

To help prevent a hostile takeover.

To help retain valued employees.

Which of the following is NOT normally regarded as being a barrier to hostile takeovers?

Answer

Abnormally high executive compensation.

Targeted share repurchases.

Shareholder rights provisions.

Restricted voting rights.

 

Poison pills.

FIN 534 Quiz 1 Week 1

Question 1

You recently sold 100 shares of your new company, XYZ Corporation, to your brother at a family reunion.  At the reunion your brother gave you a check for the stock and you gave your brother the stock certificates.  Which of the following statements best describes this transaction?

 

1) This is an example of an exchange of physical assets.

2) This is an example of a primary market transaction.

3) This is an example of a direct transfer of capital.

4) This is an example of a money market transaction.

5) This is an example of a derivatives market transaction.

 

 

Question 2

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

    

1) While the distinctions are blurring, investment banks generally specialize in lending money, whereas commercial banks generally help companies raise capital from other parties

2) A liquid security is a security whose value is derived from the price of some other “underlying” asset

3) Money market mutual funds usually invest most of their money in a well-diversified portfolio of liquid common stocks.

4) Money markets are markets for long-term debt and common stocks.

5) The NYSE operates as an auction market, whereas the Nasdaq is a dealer market

 

 

Question 3

 Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

 

1)  The NYSE does not exist as a physical location; rather it represents a loose collection of  

           dealers who trade stock electronically.

2)  An example of a primary market transaction would be your uncle transferring 100 shares of 

          Wal-Mart stock to you as a birthday gift.

3)  Capital market instruments include both long-term debt and common stocks.

4)  If your uncle in New York sold 100 shares of Microsoft through his broker to an investor in  

          Los Angeles, this would be a primary market transaction.

 5)  While the two frequently perform similar functions, investment banks generally specialize in      lending money, whereas commercial banks generally help companies raise large blocks of           capital from investors.

 

 

Question 4

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

 

1) It is usually easier to transfer ownership in a corporation than it is to transfer ownership in a sole proprietorship

2) Corporate shareholders are exposed to unlimited liability.

3) Corporations generally face fewer regulations than sole proprietorships.

4) Corporate shareholders are exposed to unlimited liability, and this factor may be compounded by the tax disadvantages of incorporation.

5) There is a tax disadvantage to incorporation, and there is no way any corporation can escape this disadvantage, even if it is very small

Question 5

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

 

1) One disadvantage of operating as a corporation rather than as a partnership is that corporate shareholders are exposed to more personal liability than partners

2) There is no good reason to expect a firm’s stockholders and bondholders to react differently to the types of new asset investments a firm makes

3) Bondholders are generally more willing than stockholders to have managers invest in risky projects with high potential returns as opposed to safer projects with lower expected returns

4) Stockholders are generally more willing than bondholders to have managers invest in risky projects with high potential returns as opposed to safer projects with lower expected returns

5) Relative to sole proprietorships, corporations generally face fewer regulations, and this makes it easier for corporations to raise capital

 

 

Question 6

 Suppose the U.S. Treasury announces plans to issue $50 billion of new bonds.  Assuming the announcement was not expected, what effect, other things held constant, would that have on bond prices and interest rates?

 

1) Prices and interest rates would both rise.

2) Prices would rise and interest rates would decline.

3) Prices and interest rates would both decline.

4) There would be no changes in either prices or interest rates.

5) Prices would decline and interest rates would rise.

 

Question 7

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

 

1) Corporations are at a disadvantage relative to partnerships because they have to file more reports to state and federal agencies, including the Securities and Exchange Administration, even if they are not publicly owned

2) In a regular partnership, liability for the firm’s debts is limited to the amount a particular partner has invested in the business

3) A fast-growth company would be more likely to set up as a partnership for its business organization than would a slow-growth company

4) Partnerships have difficulty attracting capital in part because of their unlimited liability, the lack of impermanence of the organization, and difficulty in transferring ownership

5) A major disadvantage of a partnership relative to a corporation as a form of business organization is the high cost and practical difficulty of its formation

 

 

Question 8

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

 

1) In a regular partnership, liability for other partners’ misdeeds is limited to the amount of a particular partner’s investment in the business

2) Partnerships have more difficulty attracting large amounts of capital than corporations because of such factors as unlimited liability, the need to reorganize when a partner dies, and the illiquidity (difficulty buying and selling) of partnership interests

3) A slow-growth company, with little need for new capital, would be more likely to organize as a corporation than would a faster growing company

4) In a limited partnership, the limited partners have voting control, while the general partner has operating control over the business.  Also, the limited partners are individually responsible, on a pro rata basis, for the firm’s debts in the event of bankruptcy.

5) A major disadvantage of all partnerships relative to all corporations is the fact that federal income taxes must be paid by the partners rather than by the firm itself

 

 

Question 9

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

 

1) If you purchase 100 shares of Disney stock from your brother-in-law, this is an example of a primary market transaction.

2) If Disney issues additional shares of common stock through an investment banker, this would be a secondary market transaction.

3) The NYSE is an example of an over-the-counter market.

4) Only institutions, and not individuals, can engage in derivative market transactions.

5) As they are generally defined, money market transactions involve debt securities with maturities of less than one year

 

 

Question 10

Which of the following factors would be most likely to lead to an increase in interest rates in the economy?

 

1) Households reduce their consumption and increase their savings

2) The Federal Reserve decides to try to stimulate the economy.

3) There is a decrease in expected inflation

4) The economy falls into a recession

5) Most businesses decide to modernize and expand their manufacturing capacity, and to install new equipment to reduce labor costs

 

 

Question 11

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

 

1) Hedge funds are legal in Europe and Asia, but they are not permitted to operate in the United States

2) Hedge funds have more in common with commercial banks than with any other type of financial institution

3) Hedge funds have more in common with investment banks than with any other type of financial institution

4) Hedge funds are legal in the United States, but they are not permitted to operate in Europe or Asia

5) The justification for the “light” regulation of hedge funds is that only “sophisticated” investors with high net worths and high incomes are permitted to invest in these funds, and such investors supposedly can do the necessary “due diligence” on their own rather than have it done by the SEC or some other regulator

 

 

 

Question 12

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

 

1) The New York Stock Exchange is an auction market with a physical location

2) Capital market transactions involve only the purchase and sale of equity securities, i.e., common stocks

3) If an investor sells shares of stock through a broker, then this would be a primary market transaction.

4) Consumer automobile loans are evidenced by legal documents called “promissory notes,” and these individual notes are traded in the money market

5) Consumer automobile loans are evidenced by legal documents called “promissory notes,” and these individual notes are traded in the money market

 

 

Question 13

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

 

1) The corporate bylaws are a standard set of rules established by the state of incorporation.  These rules are identical for all corporations in the state, and their purpose is to ensure that the firm’s managers run the firm in accordance with state laws

 

2) The corporate charter is a standard document prescribed by the state of incorporation, and its purpose is to ensure that the firm’s managers run the firm in accordance with state laws.  Procedures for electing corporate directors are contained in bylaws, while the declaration of the activities that the firm will pursue and the number of directors are included in the corporate charter.

3) Companies must establish a home office, or domicile, in a particular state, and that state must be the one in which most of their business (sales, manufacturing, and so forth) is conducted

4) Attorney fees are generally involved when a company develops its charter and bylaws, but since these documents are voluntary, a new corporation can avoid these costs by deciding not to have either a charter or bylaws

5) The corporate charter is concerned with things like what business the company will engage in, whereas the bylaws are concerned with things like procedures for electing the board of directors

 

 

Question 14

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

 

1) If expected inflation increases, interest rates are likely to increase

2) If individuals in general increase the percentage of their income that they save, interest rates are likely to increase

3) If companies have fewer good investment opportunities, interest rates are likely to increase

4) Interest rates on all debt securities tend to rise during recessions because recessions increase the possibility of bankruptcy, hence the riskiness of all debt securities

5) Interest rates on long-term bonds are more volatile than rates on short-term debt securities like T-bills

 

 

 

 

 

Question 15

The primary operating goal of a publicly-owned firm interested in serving its stockholders should be to _________

 

1) maximize its expected total corporate income

2) maximize its expected EPS

3) minimize the chances of losses

4) maximize the stock price per share over the long run, which is the stock’s intrinsic value

5) maximize the stock price on a specific target date

 

 

FIN 534 Week 7 Quiz 6 Chapters 10 and 11

Question 1

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

 

Question 2

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Question 3

Assume that the economy is in a mild recession, and as a result interest rates and money costs generally are relatively low. The WACC for two mutually exclusive projects that are being considered is 8%.  Project S has an IRR of 20% while Project L’s IRR is 15%. The projects have the same NPV at the 8% current WACC.  However, you believe that the economy is about to recover, and money costs and thus your WACC will also increase.  You also think that the projects will not be funded until the WACC has increased, and their cash flows will not be affected by the change in economic conditions.  Under these conditions, which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Question 4

Four of the following statements are truly disadvantages of the regular payback method, but one is not a disadvantage of this method.  Which one is NOT a disadvantage of the payback method?

Question 5

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Question 6

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?  Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one outflow followed by a series of inflows

Question 7

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Question 8

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Question 9

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Question 10

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?  Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one outflow followed by a series of inflows

Question 11

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Question 12

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?  Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one outflow followed by a series of inflows

Question 13

Assume that the economy is enjoying a strong boom, and as a result interest rates and money costs generally are relatively high. The WACC for two mutually exclusive projects that are being considered is 12%.  Project S has an IRR of 20% while Project L’s IRR is 15%. The projects have the same NPV at the 12% current WACC.  However, you believe that the economy will soon fall into a mild recession, and money costs and thus your WACC will soon decline.  You also think that the projects will not be funded until the WACC has decreased, and their cash flows will not be affected by the change in economic conditions.  Under these conditions, which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Question 14

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Question 16

The relative risk of a proposed project is best accounted for by which of the following procedures?

Question 17

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Question 18

Rowell Company spent $3 million two years ago to build a plant for a new product.  It then decided not to go forward with the project, so the building is available for sale or for a new product.  Rowell owns the building free and clear–there is no mortgage on it.  Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Question 19

Which of the following should be considered when a company estimates the cash flows used to analyze a proposed project?

Question 20

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Question 21

A company is considering a new project.  The CFO plans to calculate the project’s NPV by estimating the relevant cash flows for each year of the project’s life (i.e., the initial investment cost, the annual operating cash flows, and the terminal cash flow), then discounting those cash flows at the company’s overall WACC.  Which one of the following factors should

the CFO be sure to INCLUDE in the cash flows when estimating the relevant cash flows?

Question 22

Which of the following factors should be included in the cash flows used to estimate a project’s NPV?

Question 23

Which of the following rules is CORRECT for capital budgeting analysis?

Question 24

Currently, Powell Products has a beta of 1.0, and its sales and profits are positively correlated with the overall economy.  The company estimates that a proposed new project would have a higher standard deviation and coefficient of variation than an average company project.  Also, the new project’s sales would be countercyclical in the sense that they would be high when the overall economy is down and low when the overall economy is strong.  On the basis of this information, which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Question 25

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Question 26

Which of the following procedures does the text say is used most frequently by businesses when they do capital budgeting analyses?

Question 27

A firm is considering a new project whose risk is greater than the risk of the firm’s average project, based on all methods for assessing risk.  In evaluating this project, it would be reasonable for management to do which of the following?

Question 28

When evaluating a new project, firms should include in the projected cash flows all of the following EXCEPT:

Question 29

Which of the following is NOT a relevant cash flow and thus should not be reflected in the analysis of a capital budgeting project?

Question 30

Suppose Tapley Inc. uses a WACC of 8% for below-average risk projects, 10% for average-risk projects, and 12% for above-average risk projects.  Which of the following independent projects should Tapley accept, assuming that the company uses the NPV method when choosing projects?

 

 

MGT 521 Final Exam

1) John writes a memo to his employees. Putting his thoughts onto paper is an example of           

 

              A.   communicating

                B.   messaging

                C.   encoding

                D.   cryptography

 

               

2) Chantel received an invitation to a web meeting that will take place at 3:00 p.m. She accepted the invitation. This is an example of

                A.   formal channels of communication

                B.   spontaneous communication

                C.   feedback as a function of communication

                D.   informal channels of communication

               

                                          

3) You are doing research on political issues and find that you are on a conservative leaning site. What type of source credibility issue is this?

                A.   Credentials

                B.   Impartiality

                C.   Currency

                D.   Style

 

               

4) When reviewing an educational math website, you find the author’s background is in English. What type of source credibility issue is this?

                A.   Credentials

                B.   Impartiality

                C.   Currency

                D.   Style

 

               

5) A famous ice cream manufacturer sent workers to a nearby grocery store to offer shoppers a sample of its new flavor. The workers provided samples to 300 shoppers and noted that 80% of the sample population stated they liked the flavor. Based on this scenario, which of the following is an example of an inference?

                A.   Workers provided samples to 300 shoppers.

                B.   20 percent of the sample population did not like the new flavor or were indifferent.

                C.   The ice cream manufacturer began producing the new ice cream flavor and offered it in stores.

                D.   The workers were offering samples to see if the general public liked the new flavor.

               

 

6) Persuading or convincing others to accept your argument means the reasoning must be logical. Which of the following is an example of logical flaws or fallacies?

                A.   Opposing views are considered

                B.   Hasty Generalization

                C.   Argument presents alternative explanations

                D.   Reasoning from specific evidence

 

               

7) What is the best way for the CEO to deal with managers in key positions who continue to resist a major change?

                A.   Minimize their interactions with fellow employees and work around them

                B.   Replace them with people who will support the change

                C.   Give them space and hope they will come to see why the change was necessary

                D.   Keep increasing the pressure on them to support the change

               

 

8) Finding a win-win solution that allows parties who are involved to have their goals achieved is an example of

                A.   accommodation

                B.   collaboration

                C.   team building

                D.   compromising

 

               

9) What is emphasized more in ethical leadership theories than in transformational leadership?

                A.   Leader values

                B.   Leader behaviors

                C.   Leader skills

                D.   Leader traits

               

 

10) Ethical behavior and integrity for a leader is most likely to result in

                A.   higher unit performance

                B.   higher performance ratings for the leader by bosses

                C.   higher subordinate satisfaction and trust

                D.   less stress for the leader

 

 

11) A common characteristic of most entrepreneurs is that they

                A.   accept the risks involved in starting and managing a business

                B.   have a high level of scientific and technical expertise

                C.   possess a great deal of personal wealth

                D.   have experience in running large, complex organizations

               

 

12) In order to make an intelligent investment decision, entrepreneurs should

A.   limit their options to those business investments that are backed by the U.S. government

B.   invest in businesses that have generated a stable rate of profit for at least the past ten years

C.   invest only in business opportunities where it is possible to take an active role in management

D.   compare the risks of potential investments to their expected profits and find the right balance between profit and risk

               

 

13) The customers, employees, stockholders, suppliers, creditors, and others who stand to gain or lose by the policies and activities of a business represent the firm’s

                A.   market makers

                B.   economic environment

                C.   stakeholders

                D.   social mentors

 

               

14) When a firm makes use of the SWOT analysis, one of its objectives is to

A.   identify the best employees to fill each position within the organization

B.   set specific short-term performance standards for each department

C.   evaluate the desirability of issuing stocks or bonds in the current financial climate

D.   identify the things it does well as an organization and the things it needs to improve

               

 

15) The process of rating an organization’s practices, processes, and products against the best of the world is known as

                A.   webworking

                B.   outsourcing

                C.   benchmarking

                D.   core competencies

 

               

16) Companies benefit today by inter-firm cooperation. One of the ways they cooperate is through networking. Another way is by seeking technological knowledge and learning new processes from other firms that usually fall outside of their respective industries. We call this

                A.   competency capturing

                B.   technology swapping

                C.   benchmarking

                D.   broadening the knowledge base

               

 

17) An important difference between accounting and other business functions, such as marketing and management, is that

                A.   accounting functions must be performed by an “outsider” (rather than by an employee of the business) in order to avoid conflicts of interest

                B.   accounting offers us insight into whether the business is financially sound

                C.   accounting involves mainly clerical activities and thus requires very little analysis

                D.   accounting deals exclusively with numbers

 

               

18) Although accounting has several specific uses, the overall purpose of accounting can be summarized as

                A.   to provide financial information that is useful to decision makers

                B.   to meet the legal requirements of the Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB)

                C.   to allow the government to track business activity levels

                D.   to compute the profit or loss and declared dividend of a business firm

 

               

19) An important advantage that knowledge technology has over older versions of business technology is that it

                A.   is much cheaper to incorporate into most business operations

                B.   delivers timely information directly to the people who need it

                C.   allows businesses to locate anywhere and still reach their customers

                D.   eliminates the need for business to store information electronically

 

               

20) First Engineering, a large U.S. based mechanical engineering firm, is considering entering the global market. Upon careful analysis of the global market, they will find that global trade

                A.   opportunities are diminishing

                B.   is dominated by emerging, developing countries

                C.   is likely to be severely restricted in the future by nontariff trade barriers

                D.   is big business today and is expected to be more important in the future

 

 

21) The process of setting up individual functional units of the business to do specialized tasks is called

                A.   departmentalization

                B.   division of labor

                C.   job specialization

                D.   delegation of authority

               

 

22) The proven success of job specialization lies in the fact that

                A.   it leads to groupthink

                B.   it avoids the pitfalls of division of labor, where workers become removed from thinking conceptually about the business

                C.   it is a detractor to others who are thinking about entering your industry because it successfully creates barriers to entry

                D.   it adds efficiency to the business’s operation by identifying tasks that some do better than others

               

 

23) Economics is the study of how a society

                A.   invests wisely in the stock market

                B.   employs resources to produce goods and services and distribute them among competing groups and individuals

                C.   employs statistical techniques to make predictions about the evolution of society over the long run

                D.   governs itself for the good of its citizens

 

               

24) How is it that people working in their own self-interest produce goods, services, and wealth for others?

                A.   By taking advantage of a vast supply of labor, people working in their own self-interest could hire others at very low wages.

                B.   In order to earn money and produce goods that improve lives, self-directed gain would provide jobs, and subsequently wages for others.

                C.   The government pays entrepreneurs in the United States to produce goods, services, and wealth for others.

                D.   Entrepreneurs tend to include themselves in a group of people who need charitable support. A portion of the entrepreneur’s profit (as required by law) goes to the charity of one’s choice to support the less fortunate.

               

 

 

 

 

 

25) The ultimate resource of a firm is its

                A.   business plan

                B.   marketing mix

                C.   capital budget

                D.   employees

 

               

26) Today, human resource management has become so important that in many firms it has become

                A.   a function performed by managers in all areas of the organization

                B.   the main responsibility of the firm’s legal staff

                C.   a function handled only by specialists in the human resource department

                D.   function handled only by the firm’s top management

 

               

27) Which of the following is included in performing a business analysis?

                A.   Hiring new employees

                B.   Entering global markets

                C.   Conducting a SWOT analysis

                D.   Networking

 

               

28) When the competition is intense and the environment is changing rapidly, it is especially important to

                A.   maintain a high level of external monitoring

                B.   have detailed plans and operating procedures

                C.   increase the power of the chief executive

                D.   strengthen the organization culture

 

 

29) Which of the following would be a concern addressed in a strategic plan?

                A.   Which specific jobs should be assigned to each employee?

                B.   How much output should be produced this week in a given production facility?

                C.   Which computer software package should the firm’s human resources office use to manage the payroll?

                D.   Should the firm make a long-term commitment to expand into new markets?

 

               

 

30) Tactical planning is concerned with

A.   determining the best way to cope with an emergency situation

B.   devising temporary courses of action to be used if the primary plans do not achieve the desired results

C.   developing detailed strategies about what is to be done, who is to do it, and how it is to be done

 

D.   setting long run goals that will govern the general course of the organization for years