Plz respond to these students about what they wrote about the assignment

 

Plz respond to these students about what they wrote about the assignment

 

Assignment

 

Watch the video, “Physical Development in Early Childhood,” @ http://media.pearsoncmg.com/pcp/pls_0558982484/index.html?wf=1&item=4 and choose one child to observe for motor development.

 

Discuss and defend the observation technique you used.

 

    • Why did you select this observation technique?

 

    • What did you learn?

 

    • What other observation technique could you have used?

 

    • What more do you need to know?

 

Explain the importance of direct observation to a coworker who is new in the early childhood field. Give specific examples of why it is important to conduct objective observations of young children.  

 

Student 1

 

I actually watch both of them. It seemed to me that they both was developed pretty well. The little girl seemed to be more advanced then Cody, but both of them was close in development.

I would use play base and social behavior. Play base observation is something that can be use for children with disabilities as well as for children with out. It helps to determine how well a child is developing as they grow and learn. Also using social observation is way to determine a child’s social skills. It is important to make sure that a child is developing socially, because they will need social skills in life. Another thing that can be done is through play you can learn how a child’s motor skills are developing.

I am kind of doing this backwards. I learned that both of them had good social skills and that both of them language was good. I seen that they played will with each other and the little girl was outgoing and she was a leader if you ask me. She didn’t mind taking risk.

I need to make sure that I pay attention a little bit better and pay attention to every little details. I am learning and I am still new this hopfully when it is all over I would have mastered it.

 

Student 2

 

I observed the girl. The video never said her name. She was very cute and outgoing. She played well with Cody. Her language was very clear and understandable. She remembered that they had a playground at school and even knew the color of the ——–. She noticed that Cody couldn’t kick the ball and she told Cody to throw it instead of kicking the ball. She had great motor skills. She gave pleasant instructions to Cody. Her physical skills were developed well. She could climb and she knew it was scary and she said it was scary to climb. But she climbed anyway. The girl was quiet bright and she has developed well for her age.

 I selected Social and Emotional development. Because the girl socialized well with Cody. Her emotions were happy and outgoing.
 I learned that the girl while playing on the playground took challenges to climb. Her motor skills and her social interactions showed that she has developed through the years well. That she will be developing more and more as she grows. Her influence on Cody was normal. They got along well. Her emotional status was good. She never got angry, and her behavior stayed the same. She is a happy child. She loved playing, and talking. I learned that the girl can speak and can say clear sentences. I learned that observing her I can document many good values without being bias. She demonstrated good social skills; her social interactions were good with another child. She was very alert. She was never aggressive. Her responses were good in language, motor skills, and cognitive development. I’ve also learned to never wear bright clothes to distract a child while you are observing them. Never star at a child for a long time. I should never to be bias of a child while observing the child.

    I could have used physical development. Psychical and motor developments are the most important in a preschooler’s development. Her motor and fine motor skills are two types of motor skills that need to be observed in preschool children. Motor skills involve large muscles. The child can jump, hop, run, climb, and skip. These motor skills keep preschooler’s psychical. Psychical is being healthy and able to move with activities.

 

     I need to know a lot since I’m a beginner at this. I need to take more classes and have more assignments so that I can get a clearer view of what to do with observations. I need to become a great observer. I will take more classes coming in the future so I can ace being an observer.

 

(Assessment in Early Childhood Education, sue C. Wortham, 2012)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

replies needed for discussion board

1.Elmer Towns makes some very good points in, “Arguments That the Bible is The Word of God”, however I believe his strongest argument is the revelation of Jesus Christ. Since the fall of mankind God was mentioning the coming of The Messiah. In the Old Testament God is referred to as Yahweh which means “to be” which also translates as I am, of which Jesus calls himself “I am” many times in the Gospel of John.
Towns says, “If man invented Christ, why has he not improved upon Him? If man invented Christ, why has he not invents another?”. Man is always inventing new things and always improving things we already have but there is no new and improved Jesus Christ wandering around therefore there is no way Man created him. Towns also says, 1. “Man would not write the Bible, for in doing so he has created a message of the perfect Son of God who condemns all men”, I believe this is a good point. The authors of the bible were told by God what to put in it, because they were inspired by God. God wrote the bible not man. If man was in control of what was in the Bible then there would be no condemnation since who would want to be condemned for all eternity in Hell.

2. The extraordinary claim that the Bible is the word of God is unique in Revelation is here to see Going by the argument that the Bible is the word of God on the positive level the Christ existed before the creation that he teaches that he was the creator. This shows you that he was born of a virgin, came into this world sin free and died for our sins as a substitute. So whoever believes in Christ can be saved the message is so (lifesaving-spiritual saving). How the word of God is the Bible and save with the dual authorship of the main author God working through the people God is the hero Jesus Christ our Savior that whoever believes in him and accepts him will be saved through his body and blood of Christ.

The negative side to this argument is one example is how Jesus claimed to be the Messiah Jehovah and how his own people the Jewish try to have stone quoted out the Bible out of (John 8:59, John 4-26) if you don’t believe the Bible is the word of God ,then you must be rejecting God and his word and calling him a liar and that’s all bad. If God did not write the Bible. people made-up God invented Christ. why haven’t any other one been invented. Ever since the book of Genesis talking about the Messiah coming all the way to the end of the book Jesus gives his message to all authors and people still deny God I don’t believe it. Revelation to when he comes again for his people to new Israel transparent like glass and how he got a room for every single person who believes in him.

3.

As the world has progressed in modern times and become more diverse there seems to be a huge disconnect between the older and younger generations that seems to be getter wider on a daily basis. This is prevalent in everyday life, younger more tech savvy individuals can gain information at a stroke of a key, and less computer savvy people receive information in more traditional ways. I think that the same applies to churches and how they are perceived in today’s cultures.

As referenced in Dr Towns book “Core Christianity” polls show that most Americans want to know God but do not choose to do so in an established environment. This goes against what the Bible has stated (1 COR. 12) about all is wanted in church. Many young people struggle to find acceptance in churches that have not evolved and adapted in a manner which the Gospel is taught. What is taboo (tattoos, piercings, Sunday dress code) in older generations is now common place for younger people and this may weigh in their decision on whether they seek the gospel in a formal place. With that being said the Bible references scripture about worship (Matt. 18:20) and gives hope to the future of Christianity about where the Gospel is learned.

I feel that churches can become more welcomed in today’s society by welcoming all who choose to worship regardless of their outward appearance. Churches that are thriving in today’s cultures and gaining membership are the churches that have acceptance for all and understand that it takes many of all types to make a place of worship thrive. The Bible references this (1COR. 12:12) when it talks about a congregation becoming one with God.

4.In chapter 9 of Core Christianity, Dr. Towns discusses what the church is supposed to look like within society. Over time the view of the church has changed from community to “a place with a steeple.” Dr. Towns mentions the biblical view of a church, which is community. In today’s secular communities, there are many ways the church can become a better reflection of Christianity.

First, local churches can become more involved in their communities. More often than not, the church is a place for Christians to come “sit in pews looking at the back’s of people’s heads” rather than coming to have an intimate relationship with other Christians. Churches can get more involved in the house church or small group setting, also allowing unbelievers the opportunity to get plugged in and feel welcome amongst a small group of people facilitating actual discussion to supplement the weekly teachings of a minister.

Also, local churches could embrace more diversity. Churches can embrace diversity without compromising their core beliefs. For example, in many American churches, the normal suit and tie attire is worn. People who may not be able to afford dress clothes, or choose not to wear them immediately feel unwelcome or unwanted. Once at a church I used to attend, two younger teens attending for several weeks, never in dress attire, which was an absolute must. These teens wore all black, had torn jeans, and tattoos. They became the gossip topic of the church, and were shot looks of disgust as they came to experience the message. Eventually they felt so unwelcome and unreached out to that they left and never returned. What a powerful example of how the church could have opened their arms and embraced diversity and potentially had a positive impact. I believe that sometimes local churches forget that the church is for the sick to attend, not for the spiritually healthy to showcase themselves.

Thank you

FIN 534 Quiz 9 week 10

1. Which of the following statement completions is CORRECT? If the yield curve is upward sloping, then the marketable securities held in a firm’s portfolio, assumed to be held for emergencies, should

 

Answer

 

consist mainly of long-term securities because they pay higher rates.

 

consist mainly of short-term securities because they pay higher rates.

 

consist mainly of U.S. Treasury securities to minimize interest rate risk.

 

consist mainly of short-term securities to minimize interest rate risk.

 

be balanced between long- and short-term securities to minimize the adverse effects of either an upward or a downward trend in interest rates.

 

2 points

 

Question 2

 

A lockbox plan is most beneficial to firms that

 

have suppliers who operate in many different parts of the country.

 

have widely dispersed manufacturing facilities.

 

have a large marketable securities portfolio and cash to protect.

 

receive payments in the form of currency, such as fast food restaurants, rather than in the form of checks.

 

have customers who operate in many different parts of the country.

 

2 points

 

Question 3

 

Which of the following actions would be likely to shorten the cash conversion cycle?

 

Adopt a new manufacturing process that speeds up the conversion of raw materials to finished goods from 20 days to 10 days.

 

Change the credit terms offered to customers from 3/10 net 30 to 1/10 net 50.

 

Begin to take discounts on inventory purchases; we buy on terms of 2/10 net 30.

 

Adopt a new manufacturing process that saves some labor costs but slows down the conversion of raw materials to finished goods from 10 days to 20 days.

 

Change the credit terms offered to customers from 2/10 net 30 to 1/10 net 60.

 

2 points

 

Question 4

 

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

 

Other things held constant, the higher a firm’s days sales outstanding (DSO), the better its credit department.

 

If a firm that sells on terms of net 30 changes its policy to 2/10 net 30, and if no change in sales volume occurs, then the firm’s DSO will probably increase.

 

If a firm sells on terms of 2/10 net 30, and its DSO is 30 days, then the firm probably has some past-due accounts.

 

If a firm sells on terms of net 60, and if its sales are highly seasonal, with a sharp peak in December, then its DSO as it is typically calculated (with sales per day = Sales for past 12 months/365) would probably be lower in January than in July.

 

If a firm changed the credit terms offered to its customers from 2/10 net 30 to 2/10 net 60, then its sales should increase, and this should lead to an increase in sales per day, and that should lead to a decrease in the DSO.

 

2 points

 

Question 5

 

Which of the following statements is NOT CORRECT?

 

A company may hold a relatively large amount of cash and marketable securities if it is uncertain about its volume of sales, profits, and cash flows during the coming year.

 

Credit policy has an impact on working capital because it influences both sales and the time before receivables are collected.

 

The cash budget is useful to help estimate future financing needs, especially the need for short-term working capital loans.

 

If a firm wants to generate more cash flow from operations in the next month or two, it could change its credit policy from 2/10 net 30 to net 60.

 

Managing working capital is important because it influences financing decisions and the firm’s profitability.

 

2 points

 

Question 6

 

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

 

Net working capital is defined as current assets minus the sum of payables and accruals, and any increase in the current ratio automatically indicates that net working capital has increased.

 

Although short-term interest rates have historically averaged less than long-term rates, the heavy use of short-term debt is considered to be an aggressive strategy because of the inherent risks associated with using short-term financing.

 

If a company follows a policy of “matching maturities,” this means that it matches its use of common stock with its use of long-term debt as opposed to short-term debt.

 

Net working capital is defined as current assets minus the sum of payables and accruals, and any decrease in the current ratio automatically indicates that net working capital has decreased.

 

If a company follows a policy of “matching maturities,” this means that it matches its use of short-term debt with its use of long-term debt.

 

2 points

 

Question 7

 

Other things held constant, which of the following will cause an increase in net working capital?

 

Cash is used to buy marketable securities.

 

A cash dividend is declared and paid.

 

Merchandise is sold at a profit, but the sale is on credit.

 

Long-term bonds are retired with the proceeds of a preferred stock issue.

 

Missing inventory is written off against retained earnings.

 

2 points

 

Question 8

 

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

 

Accruals are an expensive but commonly used way to finance working capital.

 

A conservative financing policy is one where the firm finances part of its fixed assets with short-term capital and all of its net working capital with short-term funds.

 

If a company receives trade credit under terms of 2/10 net 30, this implies that the company has 10 days of free trade credit.

 

One cannot tell if a firm has a conservative, aggressive, or moderate current asset financing policy without an examination of its cash budget.

 

If a firm has a relatively aggressive current asset financing policy vis-à-vis other firms in its industry, then its current ratio will probably be relatively high.

 

2 points

 

Question 9

 

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

 

Under normal conditions, a firm’s expected ROE would probably be higher if it financed with short-term rather than with long-term debt, but using short-term debt would probably increase the firm’s risk.

 

Conservative firms generally use no short-term debt and thus have zero current liabilities.

 

A short-term loan can usually be obtained more quickly than a long-term loan, but the cost of short-term debt is normally higher than that of long-term debt.

 

If a firm that can borrow from its bank at a 6% interest rate buys materials on terms of 2/10 net 30, and if it must pay by Day 30 or else be cut off, then we would expect to see zero accounts payable on its balance sheet.

 

If one of your firm’s customers is “stretching” its accounts payable, this may be a nuisance but it will not have an adverse financial impact on your firm if the customer periodically pays off its entire balance.

 

2 points

 

Question 10

 

Which of the following statements is NOT CORRECT?

 

Commercial paper can be issued by virtually any firm so long as it is willing to pay the going interest rate.

 

Accruals are “free” in the sense that no explicit interest is paid on these funds.

 

A conservative approach to working capital management will result in most if not all permanent current operating assets being financed with long-term capital.

 

The risk to a firm that borrows with short-term credit is usually greater than if it borrowed using long-term debt. This added risk stems from the greater variability of interest costs on short-term debt and possible difficulties with rolling over short-term debt.

 

Bank loans generally carry a higher interest rate than commercial paper.

 

2 points

 

Question 11

 

Firms generally choose to finance temporary current operating assets with short-term debt because

 

Answer

 

matching the maturities of assets and liabilities reduces risk under some circumstances, and also because short-term debt is often less expensive than long-term capital.

 

short-term interest rates have traditionally been more stable than long-term interest rates.

 

a firm that borrows heavily on a long-term basis is more apt to be unable to repay the debt than a firm that borrows short term.

 

the yield curve is normally downward sloping.

 

short-term debt has a higher cost than equity capital.

 

2 points

 

Question 12

 

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

 

Depreciation is included in the estimate of cash flows (Cash flow = Net income + Depreciation), hence depreciation is set forth on a separate line in the cash budget.

 

If cash inflows from collections occur in equal daily amounts but most payments must be made on the 10th of each month, then a regular monthly cash budget will be misleading. The problem can be corrected by using a daily cash budget.

 

Sound working capital policy is designed to maximize the time between cash expenditures on materials and the collection of cash on sales.

 

If a firm wants to generate more cash flow from operations in the next month or two, it could change its credit policy from 2/10 net 30 to net 60.

 

If a firm sells on terms of net 90, and if its sales are highly seasonal, with 80% of its sales in September, then its DSO as it is typically calculated (with sales per day = Sales for past 12 months/365) would probably be lower in October than in August.

 

2 points

 

Question 13

 

A lockbox plan is

 

used to protect cash, i.e., to keep it from being stolen.

 

used to identify inventory safety stocks.

 

used to slow down the collection of checks our firm writes.

 

used to speed up the collection of checks received.

 

used primarily by firms where currency is used frequently in transactions, such as fast food restaurants, and less frequently by firms that receive payments as checks.

 

2 points

 

Question 14

 

Which of the following statements is most consistent with efficient inventory management? The firm has a

 

below average inventory turnover ratio.

 

low incidence of production schedule disruptions.

 

below average total assets turnover ratio.

 

relatively high current ratio.

 

relatively low DSO.

 

2 points

 

Question 15

 

Other things held constant, which of the following would tend to reduce the cash conversion cycle?

 

Carry a constant amount of receivables as sales decline.

 

Place larger orders for raw materials to take advantage of price breaks.

 

Take all discounts that are offered.

 

Continue to take all discounts that are offered and pay on the net date.

 

Offer longer payment terms to customers.

 

 

ACC 421 Final Exam

 

 

PART I Questions

1) An accrued expense can best be described as an amount

A.

paid and currently matched with earnings.

B.

not paid and not currently matched with earnings.

C.

not paid and currently matched with earnings.

D.

paid and not currently matched with earnings.

 

 

2) When an item of revenue is collected and recorded in advance, it is normally called a(n) ___________ revenue.

A.

unearned

B.

prepaid

C.

accrued

D.

cash

 

 

3) When an item of expense is paid and recorded in advance, it is normally called a(n)

A.

estimated expense.

B.

accrued expense.

C.

prepaid expense.

D.

cash expense.

 

 

4) A common set of accounting standards and procedures are called

A.

objectives of financial reporting.

B.

generally accepted accounting principles.

C.

financial accounting standards.

D.

statements of financial accounting concepts.

 

 

5) One objective of financial reporting is to provide

A.

information that is useful in assessing cash flow prospects.

B.

information about the liquidation values of the resources held by the enterprise.

C.

information about the investors in the business entity.

D.

information that will attract new investors.

 

 

6) The information provided by financial reporting pertains to

A.

individual business enterprises, industries, and an economy as a whole, rather than to members of society as consumers.

B.

business industries, rather than to individual enterprises or an economy as a whole or to members of society as consumers.

C.

individual business enterprises, rather than to industries or an economy as a whole or to members of society as consumers.

D.

an economy as a whole and to members of society as consumers, rather than to individual enterprises or industries.

 

 

7) The Financial Accounting Foundation

A.

provides information to interested parties on financial reporting issues.

B.

oversees the operations of the AICPA.

C.

oversees the operations of the FASB.

D.

works with the Financial Accounting Standards Advisory Council to provide informa-tion to interested parties on financial reporting issues.

 

 

8) The major distinction between the Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) and its predecessor, the Accounting Principles Board (APB), is

A.

all members of the FASB possess extensive experience in financial reporting.

B.

all members of the FASB are fully remunerated, serve full time, and are independent of any companies or institutions.

C.

the FASB issues exposure drafts of proposed standards.

D.

a majority of the members of the FASB are CPAs drawn from public practice.

 

 

9) The body that has the power to prescribe the accounting practices and standards to be employed by companies that fall under its jurisdiction is the

A.

FASB.

B.

SEC.

C.

APB.

D.

AICPA.

 

 

10) Limitations of the income statement include all of the following except

A.

items that cannot be measured reliably are not reported.

B.

income measurement involves judgment.

C.

income numbers are affected by the accounting methods employed.

D.

only actual amounts are reported in determining net income.

 

 

11) The income statement reveals

A.

resources and equities of a firm at a point in time.

B.

net earnings (net income) of a firm at a point in time.

C.

net earnings (net income) of a firm for a period of time.

D.

resources and equities of a firm for a period of time.

 

 

12) Which of the following would represent the least likely use of an income statement prepared for a business enterprise?

A.

Use by customers to determine a company’s ability to provide needed goods and services.

B.

Use by government agencies to formulate tax and economic policy.

C.

Use by investors interested in the financial position of the entity.

D.

Use by labor unions to examine earnings closely as a basis for salary discussions.

 

 

13) The process of formally recording or incorporating an item in the financial statements of an entity is

A.

allocation.

B.

realization.

C.

recognition.

D.

articulation.

 

 

14) Which of the following is not a reason why revenue is recognized at time of sale?

A.

Realization has occurred.

B.

Title legally passes from seller to buyer.

C.

All of these are reasons to recognize revenue at time of sale.

D.

The sale is the critical event.

 

 

15) Which of the following is not an accurate representation concerning revenue recognition?

A.

Revenue from selling products is recognized at the date of sale, usually interpreted to mean the date of delivery to customers.

B.

Revenue from permitting others to use enterprise assets is recognized as time passes or as the assets are used.

C.

Revenue from disposing of assets other than products is recognized at the date of sale.

D.

Revenue from services rendered is recognized when cash is received or when services have been performed.

 

 

16) One criticism not normally aimed at a balance sheet prepared using current accounting and reporting standards is

A.

an extensive use of estimates.

B.

the extensive use of separate classifications.

C.

failure to reflect current value information.

D.

failure to include items of financial value that cannot be recorded objectively.

 

 

17) The basis for classifying assets as current or noncurrent is conversion to cash within

A.

the accounting cycle or one year, whichever is longer.

B.

the operating cycle or one year, whichever is longer.

C.

the accounting cycle or one year, whichever is shorter.

D.

the operating cycle or one year, whichever is shorter.

 

 

18) The correct order to present current assets is

A.

Cash, inventories, accounts receivable, prepaid items.

B.

Cash, accounts receivable, inventories, prepaid items.

C.

Cash, accounts receivable, prepaid items, inventories.

D.

Cash, inventories, prepaid items, accounts receivable.

 

 

19) If a business entity entered into certain related party transactions, it would be required to disclose all of the following information except the

A.

dollar amount of the transactions for each of the periods for which an income state-ment is presented.

B.

nature of any future transactions planned between the parties and the terms involved.

C.

nature of the relationship between the parties to the transactions.

D.

amounts due from or to related parties as of the date of each balance sheet presented.

 

 

20) Events that occur after the December 31, 2008 balance sheet date (but before the balance sheet is issued) and provide additional evidence about conditions that existed at the balance sheet date and affect the realizability of accounts receivable should be

A.

used to record an adjustment to Bad Debt Expense for the year ending December 31, 2008.

B.

disclosed only in the Notes to the Financial Statements.

C.

discussed only in the MD&A (Management’s Discussion and Analysis) section of the annual report.

D.

used to record an adjustment directly to the Retained Earnings account

 

 

21) The full disclosure principle, as adopted by the accounting profession, is best described by which of the following?

A.

Enough information should be disclosed in the financial statements so a person wishing to invest in the stock of the company can make a profitable decision.

B.

Information about each account balance appearing in the financial statements is to be included in the notes to the financial statements.

C.

All information related to an entity’s business and operating objectives is required to be disclosed in the financial statements.

D.

Disclosure of any financial facts significant enough to influence the judgment of an informed reader.

 

 

22) The MD&A section of an enterprise’s annual report is to cover the following three items:

A.

liquidity, capital resources, and results of operations.

B.

income statement, balance sheet, and statement of cash flows.

C.

income statement, balance sheet, and statement of owners’ equity.

D.

changes in the stock price, mergers, and acquisitions.

 

 

23) If the financial statements examined by an auditor lead the auditor to issue an opinion that contains an exception that is not of sufficient magnitude to invalidate the statement as a whole, the opinion is said to be

A.

unqualified.

B.

adverse.

C.

qualified.

D.

exceptional.

 

 

24) Which of the following best characterizes the difference between a financial forecast and a financial projection?

A.

Forecasts include a complete set of financial statements, while projections include only summary financial data.

B.

A forecast attempts to provide information on what is expected to happen, whereas a projection may provide information on what is not necessarily expected to happen.

C.

A forecast is normally for a full year or more and a projection presents data for less than a year.

D.

A forecast includes data which can be verified about future expectations, while the data in a projection is not susceptible to verification.

 

 

25) Theoretically, in computing the receivables turnover, the numerator should include

A.

net sales.

B.

sales.

C.

net credit sales.

D.

credit sales.

 

 

26) Which of the following ratios measures long-term solvency?

A.

Acid-test ratio

B.

Debt to total assets

C.

Receivables turnover

D.

Current ratio

 

 

27) The rate of return on common stock equity is calculated by dividing

A.

net income by average common stockholders’ equity.

B.

net income by ending common stockholders’ equity.

C.

net income less preferred dividends by average common stockholders’ equity.

D.

net income less preferred dividends by ending common stockholders’ equity.

 

 

28) The primary purpose of the statement of cash flows is to provide information

A.

about the operating, investing, and financing activities of an entity during a period.

B.

about the cash receipts and cash payments of an entity during a period.

C.

that is useful in assessing cash flow prospects.

D.

about the entity’s ability to meet its obligations, its ability to pay dividends, and its needs for external financing.

 

 

29) The first step in the preparation of the statement of cash flows requires the use of information included in which comparative financial statements?

A.

Statements of cash flows

B.

Income statements

C.

Balance sheets

D.

Statements of retained earnings

 

 

30) To arrive at net cash provided by operating activities, it is necessary to report revenues and expenses on a cash basis. This is done by

A.

eliminating the effects of income statement transactions that did not result in a corresponding increase or decrease in cash.

B.

estimating the percentage of income statement transactions that were originally reported on a cash basis and projecting this amount to the entire array of income statement transactions.

C.

eliminating all transactions that have no current or future effect on cash, such as depreciation, from the net income computation.

D.

re-recording all income statement transactions that directly affect cash in a separate cash flow journal.

 

 

31) The amortization of bond premium on long-term debt should be presented in a statement of cash flows (using the indirect method for operating activities) as a(n)

A.

investing activity.

B.

deduction from net income.

C.

financing activity.

D.

addition to net income.

 

 

32) In determining net cash flow from operating activities, a decrease in accounts payable during a period

A.

requires an increase adjustment to cost of goods sold under the direct method.

B.

requires an addition adjustment to net income under the indirect method.

C.

requires a decrease adjustment to cost of goods sold under the direct method.

D.

means that income on an accrual basis is less than income on a cash basis.

 

 

33) In reporting extraordinary transactions on a statement of cash flows (indirect method), the

A.

net of tax amount of an extraordinary gain should be deducted from net income.

B.

net of tax amount of an extraordinary gain should be added to net income.

C.

gross amount of an extraordinary gain should be added to net income.

D.

gross amount of an extraordinary gain should be deducted from net income.

 

 

34) Which of the following transactions would require the use of the present value of an annuity due concept in order to calculate the present value of the asset obtained or liability owed at the date of incurrence?

A.

A ten-year 8% bond is issued on January 2 with interest payable semiannually on July 1 and January 1 yielding 7%.

B.

A capital lease is entered into with the initial lease payment due one month subse-quent to the signing of the lease agreement.

C.

A ten-year 8% bond is issued on January 2 with interest payable semiannually on July 1 and January 1 yielding 9%.

D.

A capital lease is entered into with the initial lease payment due upon the signing of the lease agreement.

 

 

35) Which of the following tables would show the smallest value for an interest rate of 5% for six periods?

A.

Future value of an ordinary annuity of 1

B.

Present value of 1

C.

Present value of an ordinary annuity of 1

D.

Future value of 1

 

 

36) Which table would show the largest factor for an interest rate of 8% for five periods?

A.

Future value of an annuity due of 1

B.

Present value of an ordinary annuity of 1

C.

Present value of an annuity due of 1

D.

Future value of an ordinary annuity of 1

 

 

 

ACC 432 Final Exam

 

 

 

1) Proceeds from an issue of debt securities having stock warrants should NOT be allocated between debt and equity features when

A.

the allocation would result in a discount on the debt security.

B.

the warrants issued with the debt securities are nondetachable.

C.

exercise of the warrants within the next few fiscal periods seems remote.

D.

the market value of the warrants is NOT readily available.

 

 

2) The conversion of preferred stock may be recorded by the

A.

market value method.

B.

par value method.

C.

book value method.

D.

incremental method.

 

 

3) The conversion of preferred stock into common stock requires that any excess of the par value of the common shares issued over the carrying amount of the preferred being converted should be

A.

treated as a prior period adjustment.

B.

treated as a direct reduction of retained earnings.

C.

reflected currently in income as an extraordinary item.

D.

reflected currently in income, but NOT as an extraordinary item.

 

 

4) A primary source of stockholders’ equity is

A.

contributions by stockholders.

B.

both income retained by the corporation and contributions by stockholders.

C.

appropriated retained earnings.

D.

income retained by the corporation.

 

 

5) Stockholders’ equity is generally classified into two major categories:

A.

retained earnings and unappropriated capital.

B.

earned capital and contributed capital.

C.

appropriated capital and retained earnings.

D.

contributed capital and appropriated capital.

 

 

6) When a corporation issues its capital stock in payment for services, the least appropriate basis for recording the transaction is the

A.

market value of the shares issued.

B.

Any of these provides an appropriate basis for recording the transaction.

C.

par value of the shares issued.

D.

market value of the services received.

 

 

7) Treasury shares are

A.

shares held as an investment by the treasurer of the corporation.

B.

issued but NOT outstanding shares.

C.

shares held as an investment of the corporation.

D.

issued and outstanding shares.

 

 

8) “Gains” on sales of treasury stock (using the cost method) should be credited to

A.

paid-in capital from treasury stock.

B.

other income.

C.

capital stock.

D.

retained earnings.

 

 

9) How should a “gain” from the sale of treasury stock be reflected when using the cost method of recording treasury stock transactions?

A.

As ordinary earnings shown on the income statement.

B.

As an extraordinary item shown on the income statement.

C.

As paid-in capital from treasury stock transactions.

D.

As an increase in the amount shown for common stock.

 

 

10) In computing earnings per share, the equivalent number of shares of convertible preferred stock are added as an adjustment to the denominator (number of shares outstanding). If the preferred stock is cumulative, which amount should then be added as an adjustment to the numerator (net earnings)?

A.

Annual preferred dividend

B.

Annual preferred dividend divided by the income tax rate

C.

Annual preferred dividend times (one minus the income tax rate)

D.

Annual preferred dividend times the income tax rate

 

 

11) When computing diluted earnings per share, convertible bonds are

A.

ignored.

B.

assumed converted only if they are dilutive.

C.

assumed converted whether they are dilutive or antidilutive.

D.

assumed converted only if they are antidilutive.

 

 

12) What effect will the acquisition of treasury stock have on stockholders’ equity and earnings per share, respectively?

A.

Decrease and no effect

B.

Increase and decrease

C.

Increase and no effect

D.

Decrease and increase

 

 

13) On May 1, 2007, Kent Corp. declared and issued a 10% common stock dividend. Prior to this dividend, Kent had 100,000 shares of $1 par value common stock issued and outstanding. The fair value of Kent ‘s common stock was $20 per share on May 1, 2007. As a result of this stock dividend, Kent’s total stockholders’ equity

A.

did NOT change.

B.

increased by $200,000.

C.

decreased by $10,000.

D.

decreased by $200,000.

 

 

14) How would the declaration and subsequent issuance of a 10% stock dividend by the issuer affect each of the following when the market value of the shares exceeds the par value of the stock?

 

Additional Common Stock | Paid-in Capital

A.

Increase | Increase

B.

No effect | No effect

C.

Increase | No effect

D.

No effect | Increase

 

 

15) At its date of incorporation, Wilson, Inc. issued 100,000 shares of its $10 par common stock at $11 per share. During the current year, Wilson acquired 20,000 shares of its common stock at a price of $16 per share and accounted for them by the cost method. Subsequently, these shares were reissued at a price of $12 per share. There have been no other issuances or acquisitions of its own common stock. What effect does the reissuance of the stock have on the following accounts?

Retained Earnings | Additional Paid-in Capital

A.

No effect | No effect

B.

Decrease | Decrease

C.

Decrease | No effect

D.

No effect | Decrease

 

 

16) Which of the following is correct about the effective-interest method of amortization?

A.

The effective-interest method produces a constant rate of return on the book value of the investment from period to period.

B.

The effective interest method applied to investments in debt securities is different from that applied to bonds payable.

C.

Amortization of a premium decreases from period to period.

D.

Amortization of a discount decreases from period to period.

 

 

17) An unrealized holding loss on a company’s available-for-sale securities should be reflected in the current financial statements as

A.

other comprehensive income and deducted in the equity section of the balance sheet.

B.

an extraordinary item shown as a direct reduction from retained earnings.

C.

a note or parenthetical disclosure only.

D.

a current loss resulting from holding securities.

 

 

18) An unrealized holding gain on a company’s available-for-sale securities should be reflected in the current financial statements as

A.

other comprehensive income and included in the equity section of the balance sheet.

B.

an extraordinary item shown as a direct increase to retained earnings.

C.

a note or parenthetical disclosure only.

D.

a current gain resulting from holding securities.

 

 

19) Investments in debt securities should be recorded on the date of acquisition at

A.

face value plus brokerage fees and other costs incident to the purchase.

B.

lower of cost or market.

C.

market value plus brokerage fees and other costs incident to the purchase.

D.

market value.

 

 

20) Securities which could be classified as held-to-maturity are

A.

warrants.

B.

redeemable preferred stock.

C.

municipal bonds.

D.

treasury stock.

 

 

21) Which of the following is NOT a debt security?

A.

Commercial paper

B.

Convertible bonds

C.

Loans receivable

D.

All of these are debt securities.

 

 

22) An investor has a long-term investment in stocks. Regular cash dividends received by the investor are recorded as

Fair Value Method | Equity Method

A.

A reduction of the investment | A reduction of the investment

B.

Income | Income

C.

Income | A reduction of the investment

D.

A reduction of the investment | Income

 

 

23) When a company holds between 20% and 50% of the outstanding stock of an investee, which of the following statements applies?

A.

The investor should use the equity method to account for its investment unless circum-stances indicate that it is unable to exercise “significant influence” over the investee.

B.

The investor should always use the equity method to account for its investment.

C.

The investor must use the fair value method unless it can clearly demonstrate the ability to exercise “significant influence” over the investee.

D.

The investor should always use the fair value method to account for its investment.

 

 

24) Bista Corporation declares and distributes a cash dividend that is a result of current earnings. How will the receipt of those dividends affect the investment account of the investor under each of the following accounting methods?

Fair Value Method | Equity Method

A.

Increase | Decrease

B.

No Effect | Decrease

C.

No Effect | No Effect

D.

Decrease | No Effect

 

 

25) Debt securities that are accounted for at amortized cost, NOT fair value, are

A.

trading debt securities.

B.

held-to-maturity debt securities.

C.

available-for-sale debt securities.

D.

never-sell debt securities.

 

 

26) Equity securities acquired by a corporation which are accounted for by recognizing unrealized holding gains or losses as other comprehensive income and as a separate component of stockholders’ equity are

A.

trading securities where a company has holdings of less than 20%.

B.

available-for-sale securities where a company has holdings of less than 20%.

C.

securities where a company has holdings of between 20% and 50%.

D.

securities where a company has holdings of more than 50%.

 

 

27) Use of the effective-interest method in amortizing bond premiums and discounts results in

 

A.  a smaller amount of interest income over the life of the bond issue than would result from use of the straight-line method.

 

B. a greater amount of interest income over the life of the bond issue than would result from use of the straight-line method.

 

C. a varying amount being recorded as interest income from period to period.

 

D. a variable rate of return on the book value of the investment.

 

 

28) All of the following are characteristics of a derivative financial instrument EXCEPT the instrument

A.

All of these are characteristics.

B.

has one or more underlyings and an identified payment provision.

C.

requires a large investment at the inception of the contract.

D.

requires or permits net settlement.

 

 

29) The accounting for fair value hedges records the derivative at its

A.

historical cost.

B.

amortized cost.

C.

carrying value.

D.

fair value.

 

 

30) All of the following statements regarding accounting for derivatives are correct EXCEPT that

A.

gains and losses resulting from hedge transactions are reported in different ways, depending upon the type of hedge.

B.

they should be recognized in the financial statements as assets and liabilities.

C.

they should be reported at fair value.

D.

gains and losses resulting from speculation should be deferred.

 

 

 

BUS 401 Final Exam

1.    JBC Corp. declared a dividend of $2 per share, which was an increase of 25% from the prior year, yet JBC Corp. stock declined by 3% the day of the announcement. RBG Corp. declared a dividend of $2 per share, which was the same as the prior year, and its stock increased in value by 2% on the day of the announcement. These events could be most readily explained by the (Points : 1)

       information effect.

       clientele effect.

       expectations theory.  

      residual dividend theory.

 

2. A firm’s optimal capital structure occurs where? (Points : 1)

       EPS are maximized, and WACC is minimized.

       Stock price is maximized, and EPS are maximized.

       Stock price is maximized, and WACC is maximized.

       WACC is minimized, and stock price is maximized.     

 

 3. Flotation costs: (Points : 1)

       include the fees paid to the investment bankers, lawyers, and accountants involved in selling a new security issue.  

       encourage firms to pay large dividends.

       are encountered whenever a firm fails to pay a dividend.

       are incurred when investors fail to cash their dividend check.

 

 4. Assume that the tax on dividends and the tax on capital gains is the same. All else equal, what would a prudent investor prefer? (Points : 1)

       The prudent investor would be indifferent between receiving dividends or capital gains.

       The prudent investor would prefer dividendsa dollar today is always worth more than a dollar to be received in the future.

       The prudent investor would prefer capital gainsthe capital gain tax liability can be deferred until gains are realized.    

       More information is needed.

 

 5. The break-even point is equal to (Points : 1)

       fixed costs divided by (sales price per unit — variable cost per unit).    

       fixed costs divided by unit variable costs.

       fixed costs divided by selling price per unit.

       (sales price per unit — variable cost per unit) times the fixed costs.

 

 6. The payment of dividends may indirectly result in closer monitoring of management’s investment activities, thus increasing shareholder value by (Points : 1)

       reducing agency costs.   

       increasing information asymmetry.

       increasing a company’s amount of free cash flow.

       reducing auditing fees.

 

 7. A firm that uses large amounts of debt financing in an industry characterized by a high degree of business risk would have ______ earnings per share fluctuations resulting from changes in levels of sales. (Points : 1) 

       no

       constant

       large  

       small

 

 8. A high degree of variability in a firm’s earnings before interest and taxes refers to (Points : 1)

       business risk.

       financial risk.

       financial leverage.

       operating leverage. 

 

 9. As production levels increase, (Points : 1)

       variable costs per unit decrease.

       fixed costs per unit increase.

       fixed costs per unit stay the same and variable costs per unit increase.

       fixed costs per unit decrease and variable costs per unit stay the same.  

 

10. Moline Manufacturing Corporation reported the following items: Sales = $6,000,000; Variable Costs of Production = $1,500,000; Variable Selling and Administrative Expenses = $550,000; Fixed Costs = $1,350,000; EBIT = $2,600,000; and the Marginal Tax Rate =35%. Moline’s break-even point in sales dollars is (Points : 1)

 

$2,050,633.
$2,197,500.
$2,438,750.
$2,785,000.

SCI 220 Human Nutrition Food Intake

University of Phoenix Material Food Intake– 3 Days

Write a 750- to 1,050-word paper that addresses the following points about the 3-day
food intake information you recorded in iProfile:

Recorded intake of protein, carbohydrates, and
lipids

Which foods in your recorded daily intake
provide protein? Which provide carbohydrate? Which provide lipids?

Review how your recorded protein, carbohydrate,
and lipid intake compares with the recommendations of the dietary reference intake
(DRI). If your recorded protein-carbohydrate-fat intake was too high or too
low, which foods might you add or remove to achieve your goal and keep other
nutrients in balance?


Is the protein in each of the foods you ate
complete or incomplete, thus combining to become complementary? Why is this
fact important?

How much of your daily-recommended protein,
carbohydrate, and lipid intake did you achieve? Were you surprised by the
number? If your macronutrient intake is insufficient, what might you do to
bring it into the recommended range? Provide specific recommendations.

Macronutrient intake ranges

Is macronutrient intake within the recommended
range important? What are the effects of too much or too little of a
macronutrient? What happens if you consistently eat too little protein? What
happens if you eat too few carbohydrates? What happens if you eat too few
lipids?

Fiber intake ranges

Does your fiber total meet 100% of the
recommendation for you as calculated at the iProfile website?

Do you think your intake was too high, too low,
or just right? Provide a rationale.

Does your diet meet the minimum number of
servings of foods from each fiber-containing group? If not, which of the
fiber-containing groups—fruits and vegetables—fell short of the recommended
intake?

Which specific foods provide the most fiber in
your days’ meals? Which provide the least? Identify trends in your food choices
that might affect your fiber intakes.

Dietary modifications

Are you able to identify any patterns or trends
within your diet? If so, what are they?

What changes might you make among your
vegetables, fruits, meat and meat alternatives, or grain choices to increase
the fiber in your diet?

Do your meals include fiber-rich bean dishes,
such as chili, beans in a salad, or split-pea soup?

If you drink fruit juice instead of eating whole
fruit, what might happen to the fiber content and calorie content in your diet?

How might insufficient or excessive amounts of
proteins, carbohydrates, fats, or fiber contribute to health or illness?
Provide examples.

HCS 325 Week 5 Team Organizational Structure Presentation

Consider the following scenario:

 

·         You are a manager of a large rehabilitation center that provides short-term care rehabilitation services on an inpatient and outpatient basis. Your center is proposing a new addition of long-term care services and, with this expansion, you must hire and train several new employees.

 

Develop a 12- to 15-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation on the organizational structure of the rehabilitation center described in the scenario above. Create the presentation for the audience you selected in Week Two.

 

·         For assistance with this type of assignment, review these resources.

 

Address the following in your presentation:

 

·         The effects of organizational structure on communication

 

o    What are appropriate communication methods for managers within this organization?

o    What is the importance of these communication methods within this organizational structure?

o    What internal relationships must be considered?

o    What external relationships must be considered?

 

·         The steps involved in organizational planning and functions of management

 

o    What steps are used to plan and implement change within the organization?

o    How might these steps be applied to the scenario?

 

·         Strategies and methods needed to influence organizational change and to minimize conflict

 

 

o    What are strategies that might be used to bring about change in the organization?

SOWK 1100 – Values Assignment

SOWK 1100 – Values Assignment

Values and ethics are a cornerstone of professional practice in many disciplines, but particularly in social work. In order to be an effective clinician, you need to have a working understanding of the profession’s values as well as your own personal ones. This assignment will give you the opportunity to explore your own personal values as well as develop a beginning understand of professional social work values and ethics.

 

Competencies Addressed:

2.1.2—Apply social work ethical principles to guide professional practice.

 

Assignment:

In a 1-2 page paper, please answer the following questions:

1.                   What are your core values?

2.                   Where/how did you learn these values?

3.                   Explain (in your own words) the ethical principles and values of the social work profession according to NASW. Don’t just list them, explain them.

4.                   In what areas do your values agree with social work values?

5.                   In what areas do your values diverge from social work values?

6.                   How might differences in your values hinder or affect your ability to be a practicing social worker?

 

Be sure that your paper is narrative in format. Do not just state the question and answer it. Make sure that you put some thought into your responses. Your paper should be double spaced with one inch margins and your name in the upper right corner. Pages should be STAPLED together. Do not fold edges or use paper clips as the pages can become separated and lost. Be sure that you use proper grammar, punctuation and spelling. 

Paper Format

Paragraph 1 – answer questions 1 and 2

Paragraph 2 – answer question 3

Paragraph 3 – answer questions 4-6

 

 

HCS 325 Entire Course

Prepare a 300-700 word paper based on your readings for this week describing “your” definition of the role and application of management functions used by today’s health care managers. Consider the following:

o  What is the most important role or function for a health care manager?

o  What is the most significant aspect related to health care management that you want to gain by taking this class?

·  Use a minimum of two references to support your paper.

 

·  Few healthcare workplaces today can be considered true boundaryless organizations. Workplace trends within and outside healthcare are requiring employees to connect with an ever-widening array of co-workers, consultants, off-site employees, and other resources. Whatever form a boundaryless organization takes, sharing knowledge is critical to the organization’s success.

·  Prepare a 700-1050 paper in which you consider ways in which your organization currently shares knowledge and/or involves employees in formulating solutions to problems.

o  What techniques have been most effective for sharing information and ideas?

o  What techniques were ineffective?

o  How might these techniques be applied or modified in a healthcare wo

 

·  Create a 2-3 page outline for your Learning Team presentation in which you frame the presentation to be given in week 5. Use the requirements given in week 1 to help draft the outline. Although week’s 4 and 5 should not be fully developed they should include surface level type information.

rk environment?

o  How can technology impact this process as well?

·  Use a minimum of 3 references to support your paper.

 

·  Within your organization, upper management has decided that certain changes need to be made and it is up to each manager to start preparing their team for the changes. One of the changes that need to be addressed involves motivational techniques. As manager it is your job to research and understand various motivational methods in order to implement them within the team.

·  Prepare a 1050-1400 paper in which you discuss at least 3 motivational methods you would apply as a manager and how this change can affect the organization. Provide at least three sources in your response.

 

·  Finalize and submit your Learning Team Presentation. Make sure that all requirements are met including detailed presenter notes.