art unit 1 DB

Questions for weekly discussions and conversations (not part of the required Discussion Board assignment)

These questions can serve as the starting point for your discussions during the week. They are “thought starters,” so that you can explore some ideas associated with the discussion board and unit topics. Answers are not required, and should not be submitted with your required assignment. Answers are not graded.

1. How did you gain an awareness and understanding of art forms?

2. What are your impressions of what constitutes a work of art?

B. Required Discussion Board assignment.

  • For this assignment, you will take on the role of an investigative journalist by using the Internet to seek out different kinds of artworks including art that is not conventionally considered to be art. Your search begins by looking for ideas in the Classroom Materials, your instructor’s assignment notes, and the Library’s Guides to Library Resources for this class. Works of art currently, or traditionally found in museums should be excluded from your examples.
  • Choose two specific works of art (not general forms of art) that will make for a captivating news article.
  • Using the art terminology and concepts outlined in the textbook and supplement reading to describe and evaluate each artwork chosen by answering the following questions. Apply your own critical thinking to completely describe the works and put them in context for the reader.
  • Elaborate on the details in your own words. Consider including a headline to grab your reader’s attention, and be sure to include a clearly labeled URL (Web link) to the image.

What is the FORM of the work?

  • Is it a two-dimensional or three-dimensional work of art?
  • What materials are used?
  • What techniques or processes are used to create the artwork?
  • What colors are used?
  • Describe the use of line, shape, texture, value, color, and balance.

Does the work of art have SUBJECT MATTER?

  • If so, what is literally depicted?
  • Is the work of art REPRESENTATIONAL, ABSTRACT, or NONOBJECTIVE?

What is the CONTENT?

 

  • What does it mean or represent?
  • What is the artist’s message?
  • Is symbolism used? If so, what is the meaning?
  • What is the context of the artwork?
  • What is the function of the artwork?
  • What traditional role of the artist is exemplified? 

art unit 2 DB

From the list below, choose one Greek work of art and one Roman work of art and compare and contrast them according to the criteria listed:

Greek Art

 

Roman Art

 

The Doryphoros (Polykleitos, 450 BCE)

 

Augustus of Primaporta (c. 20 BCE)

 

The Laocoon Group (1stCentury, CE)

 

Marcus Agrippa with Imperial Family (South frieze from the Ara Pacis, 13-9 CE)

 

Nike of Samothrace (c. 190 BCE)

 

She-Wolf (c. 500 BCE)

 

The Temple of Athena (427–424 BCE)

 

The Colosseum (72–80 CE)

 

The Parthenon (447–438 BCE)

 

The Arch of Constantine (313 CE)

 

Answer the following list of questions in a comparative essay to evaluate your choices. Be sure to introduce the works you have chosen.

What is the FORM of the work?

  • Is it a two-dimensional or three-dimensional work of art?
  • What materials are used?
  • What techniques or processes are used to create the artwork?
  • What colors are used?
  • Describe the use of line, shape, texture, value, color, and balance.

Does the work of art have SUBJECT MATTER?

  • If so, what is literally depicted?
  • Is the work of art REPRESENTATIONAL, ABSTRACT, or NONOBJECTIVE?

What is the CONTENT?

  • What does it mean or represent?
  • What is the artist’s message?
  • Is symbolism used? If so, what is the meaning?
  • What is the context of the artwork?
  • What is the function of the artwork?
  • What is the religious, philosophical and/or historical significance?
  • What traditional role of the artist is exemplified?

 

 

Leadership and Culture

Multiple Choice Questions

SET#1 QUESTIONS

 

1. (p. 326) _____________ is the process and practice by key executives of guiding and shepherding people in an organization toward a vision over time and developing that organization’s future leadership and organizational culture. 

A. Organizational structure

B. Organizational strategy

C. Organizational leadership

D. Cultural context

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 1

 

2. (p. 328) Which of the following is NOT a way through which leaders galvanize commitment to embrace change? 

A. Involve every employee in corporate strategic decision making

B. Shape organizational culture

C. Build the organization

D. Clarify strategic intent

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 1

 

3. (p. 328) Leaders help their company embrace change by setting forth their ________ a clear sense of where they want to lead the company and what results they expect to achieve. 

A. Strategic quota

B. Mission

C. Vision

D. Strategic intent

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 1

 

 

 

4. (p. 328) Traditionally, the concept of _________ has been a description or picture of what the company could be that accommodates the needs of all its stakeholders. 

A. Mission

B. Vision

C. Strategy

D. Performance

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 2

 

5. (p. 328) A _________ is an articulation of a simple criterion or characterization of what the leader sees the company must become to establish and sustain global leadership. 

A. Leader’s principle

B. Mission

C. Leader’s vision

D. Strategic intent

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 2

 

6. (p. 329) A key element of good organizational leadership is to make clear the ___________ a leader has for the organization and managers in it, as they seek to move toward the vision. This will help keep the firm on track in the present term. 

A. Strategic purpose

B. Strategic goals

C. Alternative structures

D. Performance expectations

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 2

 

 

 

7. (p. 331) Because leaders are attempting to embrace change, they are often _____________ their organization. 

A. Abandoning

B. Rebuilding or remaking

C. Divesting businesses in

D. Repositioning

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 2

 

8. (p. 331) ____________ is the effort to familiarize future leaders with the skills important to the company and to develop exceptional leaders among the managers you employ. 

A. Identifying an action plan

B. Education and leadership development

C. Developing principles

D. Creating passion

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 3

 

9. (p. 333) ____________ are your fundamental personal standards that guide your sense of honesty, integrity and ethical behavior. 

A. Values

B. Ethics

C. Principles

D. Passions

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 3

 

 

 

10. (p. 333) A future leader’s personal philosophies and choices ___________ for any key leaders of any organization. 

A. Manifest themselves exponentially

B. Are usually diminished over time

C. Always permeate the company

D. Become less pronounced with time

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 3

 

11. (p. 333) An effective organization is better built and is strongest when: 

A. Its leaders clearly articulate their vision for the firm

B. Its leaders show by example what principles are important

C. Its leaders “manage from afar”

D. Its leaders micromanage the employees of the firm

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 3

 

12. (p. 333) _____________ can be seen in principles, honesty and “living by example.” This can become a major force by which a leader will shape and move his or her organization. 

A. Prioritization

B. Transparency

C. Strategy

D. Long-term objectives

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 3

 

 

 

13. (p. 332) __________ is the capacity to see a commitment through to completion long after most people would have stopped trying. 

A. Perseverance

B. Passion

C. Principle

D. Integrity

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 3

 

14. (p. 334) __________ is a highly motivated sense of commitment to what you do and want to do. 

A. Passion

B. Patience

C. Perseverance

D. Principle

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 3

 

15. (p. 336) Leaders look to managers to execute strategy, accept risk and cope with the complexity of change. So, _________ becomes a major leadership role. 

A. Setting short-term strategy

B. Selection and development of key managers

C. Establishing priority among senior executives

D. Limiting managerial “buy-in”

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 3

 

 

 

16. (p. 336) ___________ will increase pressure on corporations to push authority downward in their organizations. This means every line manager will have to exercise leadership prerogatives to an extent unthinkable a generation earlier. 

A. Globalization

B. Fragmentation of industries

C. Consolidation of industries

D. The accelerated pace and complexity of business

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 3

 

17. (p. 338) Researcher David Goleman addressed the question of: 

A. What types of competencies are needed among organizational leaders?

B. The optimal age and maturity for successful organizational leaders

C. What types of personality attributes generate the ideal type of competencies needed in organizations?

D. How an organization can groom new executives from within

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 3

 

18. (p. 338) _________ exists in terms of the ability to read and understand one’s emotions and assess one’s strengths and weaknesses, underlain by the confidence that stems from positive self-worth. 

A. Self-management

B. Self-awareness

C. Social awareness

D. Social skills

 

 

Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective: 3

 

 

 

19. (p. 338) __________ exists in terms of control, integrity, conscientiousness, initiative and achievement orientation. 

A. Social awareness

B. Self-awareness

C. Social skills

D. Self-management

 

 

Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective: 3

 

20. (p. 338) ___________ occurs in relation to sensing others’ emotions, reading the organization and recognizing customers’ needs. 

A. Self-awareness

B. Social skills

C. Social awareness

D. Self-management

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 3

 

21. (p. 338) One may define _________ as sensing others’ emotions. 

A. Sympathy

B. Empathy

C. Relationship

D. Sensitivity

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 3

 

22. (p. 338) One can define _________ as being able to “read” the organization. 

A. Social integrity

B. Empathy

C. Organizational awareness

D. Social-management

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 3

 

 

 

23. (p. 338) ___________ comes from recognizing customers’ needs. 

A. Service orientation

B. Position power

C. Self-awareness

D. Organizational management

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 3

 

24. (p. 338) ____________ occur(s) in relation to influencing and inspiring others; communicating, collaborating and building relationships with others; and managing change and conflict. 

A. Competitive management

B. Social skills

C. Self-management

D. Self-awareness

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 3

 

25. (p. 338) A key way the characteristics of the desirable manager manifest themselves in a manager’s routine activities is found in the way they: 

A. Seek to get favorable decisions from corporate management

B. Collaborate with others

C. Choose individual workers

D. Seek to get the work of their unit done over time

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 3

 

 

 

26. (p. 338) Organizational sources of power are derived from: 

A. The manager’s tenure at the firm

B. The manager’s role in the organization

C. The manager’s style of working individually

D. The manager’s functional tactics

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 4

 

27. (p. 338) _________ is formally established based on the manager’s position in the organization. 

A. Organization power

B. Reward power

C. Position power

D. Information power

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 4

 

28. (p. 338) By virtue of Sam’s vice presidency in the organization, certain decision-making authorities and responsibilities are conferred that he is entitled to use to get things done. This is an example of: 

A. Peer influence

B. Expert influence

C. Punitive power

D. Position power

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 4

 

 

 

29. (p. 338) ___________ is the source of power many new managers expect to be able to rely on, but often the least useful. 

A. Referent power

B. Reward power

C. Punitive power

D. Position power

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 4

 

30. (p. 338) __________ is available when the manager confers something in return for desired actions and outcomes. 

A. Punitive power

B. Referent influence

C. Reward power

D. Information power

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 4

 

31. (p. 338) Often a power source, _________ is the type used when Jomar, a business unit manager, gave Elisa, his subordinate, the option to have a flexible work schedule or to work from home in return for her finishing several projects on-deadline. 

A. Referent power

B. Reward power

C. Information power

D. Peer influence

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 4

 

 

 

32. (p. 338) ___________ can be particularly effective and is derived from a manager’s access to and control over the dissemination of information that is important to subordinates yet not easily available in the organization. 

A. Information power

B. Organization power

C. Expert influence

D. Referent power

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 4

 

33. (p. 338) Jerry was using __________ when he asked his workers to reorganize the department. They did not yet know why they were doing this, but knew that Jerry had a good reason that he had not yet shared. 

A. Referent power

B. Punitive power

C. Information power

D. Peer influence

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 4

 

34. (p. 338) ___________ is the power exercised via coercion or fear of punishment for mistakes by a manager’s subordinates. 

A. Expert influence

B. Information power

C. Position power

D. Punitive power

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 4

 

 

 

35. (p. 338) The assembly line workers had already received cutbacks in bonus compensation when profits fell last quarter. Rogeco’s managers made it clear that unless productivity and profits were brought back up to the industry benchmarks within two quarters, further cuts would be made to base pay. This demonstrates: 

A. Expert influence

B. Referent influence

C. Information power

D. Punitive power

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 4

 

36. (p. 338) Leaders today _________ rely on their personal ability to influence others. 

A. Decreasingly

B. Try not to

C. Increasingly

D. Should never

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 4

 

37. (p. 338) ________, a form of power, comes mainly from three sources: expert, referent and peer influences. 

A. External influence

B. Personal influence

C. Punitive influence

D. Organizational influence

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 4

 

 

 

38. (p. 338) _________ is derived from a leader’s knowledge in a particular area or situation. 

A. Expert influence

B. Information power

C. Punitive power

D. Peer influence

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 4

 

39. (p. 338) __________ comes from having others want to identify with the leader. 

A. Expert influence

B. Peer influence

C. Referent influence

D. Coercive power

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 4

 

40. (p. 338) Asif was one of the most charismatic managers at Titan Systems. He had a great personality and was always very empathetic to employee needs. Asif can be characterized as having strong: 

A. Referent influence

B. Peer influence

C. Expert influence

D. Information power

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 4

 

 

 

41. (p. 339) ___________ can be a very effective way for leaders to influence the behaviors of others. This is used when leaders use the assignment of team members and the charge to the team to influence the outcomes produced. 

A. Punitive power

B. Peer influence

C. Information power

D. Referent influence

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 4

 

42. (p. 339) Effective leaders: 

A. Choose just one key source of power and influence

B. Tend to limit these types of influence and use more legitimate means

C. Usually do not have reason to use more than one of these types of power at a time

D. Make use of all seven sources of power, often in combination

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 4

 

43. (p. 339) Bartlett and Ghoshal studied several of the most successful global companies in the last decade. Their research suggests that combining flexible responsiveness with integration and innovation: 

A. Requires consistency in the management role in a twenty-first century company

B. Is based on an institution, not a process in a twenty-first century company

C. Determines the value of the management role in a twenty-first century company

D. Requires rethinking the management role and the distribution of management roles within a twenty-first century company

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 5

 

 

 

44. (p. 339) The ___________ according to Bartlett and Ghoshal involves decisions about opportunities to pursue and resource deployment. 

A. Entrepreneurial process

B. Integration process

C. Innovation process

D. Renewal process

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 5

 

45. (p. 339) The ___________ according to Bartlett and Ghoshal involves building and deploying organizational capabilities. 

A. Integration process

B. Innovation process

C. Entrepreneurial process

D. Renewal process

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 5

 

46. (p. 339) The ___________ according to Bartlett and Ghoshal involves shaping organizational purpose and enabling change. 

A. Entrepreneurial process

B. Renewal process

C. Integration process

D. Innovation process

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 5

 

 

 

47. (p. 339) The research of Bartlett and Ghoshal suggests that the critical management functions: 

A. Must be present in the organization, but not necessarily in all three levels of management

B. Is strictly the domain of top management?

C. Should be confined, typically, to the top two management levels

D. Need to be shared and distributed across three management levels

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 5

 

48. (p. 339) Developing operating managers and supporting their activities occurs in middle management as part of the: 

A. Integration process

B. Renewal process

C. Innovation process

D. Entrepreneurial process

 

 

Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective: 5

 

49. (p. 339) In front-line management, creating and pursuing opportunities and managing contiguous performance improvement is an example of the: 

A. Integration process

B. Entrepreneurial process

C. Renewal process

D. Innovation process

 

 

Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective: 5

 

 

 

50. (p. 339) Providing institutional leadership through shaping and embedding corporate purpose and challenging embedded assumptions at the top management level is reflective of the: 

A. Innovation process

B. Integration process

C. Renewal process

D. Entrepreneurial process

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 5

 

51. (p. 339) Linking skills, knowledge and resources across units in the middle-management level demonstrates the: 

A. Renewal process

B. Integration process

C. Entrepreneurial process

D. Innovation process

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 5

 

52. (p. 339) Attracting resources and capabilities and developing the business at the front-line management level exemplifies the: 

A. Renewal process

B. Integration process

C. Innovation process

D. Entrepreneurial process

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 5

 

 

 

53. (p. 340) ________ is the set of important assumptions that members of an organization share in common. 

A. Organizational culture

B. Organizational leadership

C. Organizational strategy

D. Organizational change

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 5

 

54. (p. 340) The important assumptions shared by members of an organization are often: 

A. Very similar to all other organizations in that industry

B. Very obvious to outsiders

C. Unstated

D. Formalized

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 5

 

55. (p. 340) When a member internalizes the beliefs and values of the firm, the corresponding behavior is: 

A. A shared assumption

B. Extrinsically rewarding

C. Enforced using referent power

D. Intrinsically rewarding

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 5

 

 

 

56. (p. 340) Assumptions become shared assumptions through __________ among an organization’s individual members. 

A. Internalization

B. Externalization

C. Reiteration

D. Reflection

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 5

 

57. (p. 340) Joe Germane, CEO of Brady Healthcare, has made sure to visit each of the international business units biannually since he was brought on in the firm. This demonstrates Joe’s: 

A. Building time in the organization

B. Emphasizing key themes

C. Adapting common themes in a unique way

D. Institutionalizing practices that reinforce desired beliefs

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 6

 

58. (p. 341) An organization is much like a(n) __________, in which new members must be initiated and earn trust and credibility among fellow members. 

A. Institution

B. Tribe

C. Army

D. Elite club

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 6

 

 

 

59. (p. 342) ________ are a person’s basis for differentiating right from wrong. 

A. Principles

B. Ethical standards

C. Morals

D. Laws

 

 

Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective: 6

 

60. (p. 344) Power Fund is a long-standing brokerage firm with a great history of high returns and well-managed growth. The managers at Power Fund repeatedly refer to terms like “quality,” “growth,” and “reliability” in the firm’s advertisements. This demonstrates managers’: 

A. Dissemination of stories and legends about core values

B. Emphasis on key themes or dominant values

C. Building time into the organization

D. Managing the firm globally

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 6

 

61. (p. 344) Foto Show, an online full-service photo processing site, institutionalizes its storytelling among old and new employees alike–they even give awards to reinforce the given theme. This demonstrates: 

A. Emphasizing dominant values

B. Encouraging dissemination of legends about core values

C. Building time in the organization

D. Managing organizational culture in a global organization

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 6

 

 

 

62. (p. 345) _________ create differences across national boundaries that influence how people interact, read personal cues and otherwise interrelate socially. 

A. Values

B. Religions

C. Social norms

D. Educations

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 6

 

63. (p. 345) __________ about similar circumstances varies from country to country. In North America, individualism is central, but in Japan, the needs of the group dominate. 

A. Values and attitudes

B. Religions

C. Educations

D. Social norms

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 6

 

64. (p. 345) __________, manifest in holidays, practices and belief structures, differ in fundamental ways that must be taken into account as one attempts to shape organizational culture in a global setting. 

A. Values and attitudes

B. Social norms

C. Religion

D. Education

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 6

 

 

 

65. (p. 346) __________ differs across national borders in the various ways people are accustomed to learning. 

A. Social norms

B. Social awareness

C. Education

D. Religion

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 6

 

66. (p. 346) When there is a high potential compatibility of changes with the existing culture and many changes in key organizational factors that are necessary to implement the new strategy: 

A. Managers should manage around the culture

B. Managers should reformulate strategy or prepare carefully for long-term, difficult cultural change

C. Managers should link changes to the basic mission and fundamental organizational norms

D. Managers should focus on reinforcing the culture and achieving synergies

 

 

Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective: 7

 

67. (p. 346) When there is a low potential compatibility of changes with the existing culture and many changes in key organizational factors that are necessary to implement the new strategy: 

A. Managers should link changes to the basic mission and fundamental organizational norms

B. Managers should reformulate strategy or prepare carefully for long-term, difficult cultural change

C. Managers should focus on reinforcing the culture and achieving synergies

D. Managers should manage around the culture

 

 

Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective: 7

 

 

 

68. (p. 346) When there is a high potential compatibility of changes with the existing culture and few changes in key organizational factors that are necessary to implement the new strategy: 

A. Managers should focus on reinforcing the culture and achieving synergies

B. Managers should link changes to the basic mission and fundamental organizational norms

C. Managers should manage around the culture

D. Managers should reformulate strategy or prepare carefully for long-term, difficult cultural change

 

 

Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective: 7

 

69. (p. 346) When there is a low potential compatibility of changes with the existing culture and few changes in key organizational factors that are necessary to implement the new strategy: 

A. Managers should link changes to the basic mission and fundamental organizational norms

B. Managers should focus on reinforcing the culture and achieving synergies

C. Managers should manage around the culture

D. Managers should reformulate strategy or prepare carefully for long-term, difficult cultural change

 

 

Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective: 7

 

70. (p. 347) Using a time of relative stability to remove organizational roadblocks to the desired culture is one broad theme in attempting to: 

A. Manage around culture

B. Maximize synergy

C. Link to mission

D. Reformulate the strategy or culture

 

 

=================================================

SET#2

 

Chapter 06

Internal Analysis

  

 

Multiple Choice Questions

 

1. (p. 138) The tendency to accept the status quo and disregard signals that change is needed is called: 

A. Management myopia

B. Environmental awareness

C. Management long-sightedness

D. Subjective management

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 1

 

2. (p. 140) SWOT analysis’s value and continued use is found in its: 

A. Complexity

B. Difficulty

C. Simplicity

D. Short-sighted nature

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 1

 

3. (p. 140) What have strategists sought in frameworks besides SWOT for conducting internal analysis? 

A. They have sought to get less detail from other frameworks

B. They have sought that the frameworks be more comprehensive

C. They have sought a less generic framework

D. They have sought to better account for internal factors in light of external factors

 

 

Difficulty: Difficult

Learning Objective: 1

 

 

 

4. (p. 140) _______ views a firm as a sequential process of value-creating activities. 

A. Resource-based analysis

B. Value chain analysis

C. SWOT analysis

D. Primary internal analysis

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 2

 

5. (p. 140) Common to all the approaches to internal analysis is: 

A. The use of meaningful standards for comparison in internal analysis

B. The use of external factors of analysis

C. The process point of view

D. Management market myopia

 

 

Difficulty: Difficult

Learning Objective: 2

 

6. (p. 140) ________ is a historically popular technique through which managers create a quick overview of a company’s strategic situation—it is based on achieving a sound fit between internal resources and the external situation. 

A. Internal analysis

B. External analysis

C. Value chain analysis

D. SWOT analysis

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 1

 

7. (p. 140) A(n) ________ is a major favorable situation in a firm’s environment. 

A. Value chain

B. Strength

C. Opportunity

D. Capability

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 1

 

 

 

8. (p. 140) A(n) ______ is a major unfavorable situation in a firm’s environment. 

A. Weakness

B. Core strength

C. Competitive disadvantage

D. Threat

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 1

 

9. (p. 140) Which of the following is NOT an example of an opportunity for the firm? 

A. Identification of a previously overlooked market segment

B. Improved buyer or supplier relationships

C. Positive changes in regulatory circumstances

D. Strong reputation and image with a key demographic

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 1

 

10. (p. 141) A(n) ______ is a resource or capability controlled by or available to a firm that gives it an advantage relative to its competitors in meeting the needs of the customers it serves. 

A. Competence

B. Strength

C. Opportunity

D. Competitive advantage

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 1

 

 

 

11. (p. 141) A(n) _______ is a limitation or deficiency in one or more of a firm’s resources or capabilities relative to its competitors that creates a disadvantage in effectively meeting customer needs. 

A. Weakness

B. Threat

C. Competitive limit

D. Marginal resource

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 1

 

12. (p. 141) Consider e-Pixels, a company that produces miniature digital video cameras that feature easy downloads and uplinks to computers. Which of the following represents a potential strength for the firm? 

A. Brand name

B. Digitalization of most types of media

C. Growing global computer companies with similar technology

D. Limited experience with video technology

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 1

 

13. (p. 142) According to a SWOT analysis diagram, what strategy does Cell 1 support? 

A. Aggressive

B. Turnaround

C. Defensive

D. Diversification

 

 

Difficulty: Difficult

Learning Objective: 1

 

 

 

14. (p. 142) The cells on the left side of the SWOT diagram are both characterized by: 

A. Substantial internal strengths

B. Numerous environmental opportunities

C. Critical internal weaknesses

D. Major environmental threats

 

 

Difficulty: Difficult

Learning Objective: 1

 

15. (p. 142) Which cell in the SWOT analysis diagram is the most favorable situation? 

A. Cell 1

B. Cell 2

C. Cell 3

D. Cell 4

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 1

 

16. (p. 142) ________ represents the least favorable situation, with the firm facing major environmental threats from a weak resource position. 

A. Cell 1

B. Cell 2

C. Cell 3

D. Cell 4

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 1

 

17. (p. 142) Which cell supports a turnaround-oriented strategy? 

A. Cell 2

B. Cell 3

C. Cell 4

D. Cell 1

 

 

Difficulty: Difficult

Learning Objective: 1

 

 

 

18. (p. 142) Which of the following describes the situation for a firm in Cell 2? 

A. The firm faces several environmental opportunities and has numerous strengths that encourage pursuit of those opportunities

B. The firm faces major environmental threats from a weak resource position

C. The firm has identified several key strengths, but faces an unfavorable environment

D. The firm faces impressive market opportunity, but is constrained by weak internal resources

 

 

Difficulty: Difficult

Learning Objective: 1

 

19. (p. 144) What makes SWOT analysis susceptible to key limitations? 

A. Its narrow focus on external factors

B. Its broad conceptual approach

C. Its vastly limited applicability

D. Its portrayal of the essence of sound strategy formulation

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 1

 

20. (p. 144) Which of the following statements is false? 

A. A SWOT analysis can overemphasize external threats and downplay internal strengths

B. A SWOT analysis can be static and can risk ignoring changing circumstances

C. A strength, as identified by SWOT analysis is not necessarily a source of competitive advantage

D. A SWOT analysis can overemphasize a single strength or element of strategy

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 1

 

 

 

21. (p. 145) Which of the following statements is true? 

A. A strength is not always a source of competitive advantage

B. Strengths are synonymous with competitive advantage

C. Every company resource or capability is a strength and leads to competitive advantage

D. Strengths are always inimitable

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 1

 

22. (p. 145) A perspective in which business is seen as a chain of activities that transforms inputs into outputs that customers value is called: 

A. Value chain

B. Value chain analysis

C. Resource-base

D. Process division

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 2

 

23. (p. 145) Which of the following is NOT an example of a basic source from which customer value is derived? 

A. Activities that differentiate the product

B. Activities that lower its cost

C. Activities that add to product complexity

D. Activities that meet the customer’s need more quickly

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 2

 

 

24. (p. 145) Value chain analysis takes a: 

A. Process point of view

B. Functional point of view

C. Horizontal point of view

D. Corporate point of view

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 2

 

 

25. (p. 145) Which method of internal analysis disaggregates the business into sets of activities that occur within the business, starting with inputs and finishing with the firm’s products and after-service sales? 

A. Resource-based view

B. Value chain analysis

C. SWOT analysis

D. Porter’s generic strategies

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 2

 

26. (p. 146) Which of the following is an example of a primary activity in the typical firm? 

A. Human resources management

B. Research, technology and systems development

C. General administration

D. Logistics

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 2

 

27. (p. 146) Which of the following is an example of support activities in the typical firm? 

A. Operations

B. Procurement

C. Marketing and sales

D. Service

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 2

 

 

 

28. (p. 146) Those activities in a firm that are involved in the physical creation of the product, marketing and transfer to the buyer and after-sales support are called: 

A. Operational activities

B. Support activities

C. Secondary activities

D. Primary activities

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 2

 

29. (p. 148) The initial step in value chain analysis is to: 

A. Allocate costs to different activities within the value chain

B. Identify the firm’s strengths and weaknesses

C. Divide a company’s operations into specific activities or processes

D. Identify the firm’s key resources and capabilities

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 2

 

30. (p. 148) In VCA, which method of cost accounting is preferred? 

A. Activity-based cost accounting

B. Value-based cost accounting

C. Traditional cost accounting

D. Financial cost accounting

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 2

 

 

 

31. (p. 149) Which of the following is usually true about a firm’s value chain? 

A. Scrutinizing a firm’s value chain may bring attention to several sources of differentiation advantage relative to competitors

B. Scrutinizing a firm’s value chain does not usually reveal cost advantages or disadvantages

C. Scrutinizing the firm’s value chain can minimize the activities that are critical to buyer satisfaction

D. Analysis of the firm’s value chain can lead a firm to limit its market success

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 2

 

32. (p. 151) Which of the following considerations is critical at the examination stage of the value chain analysis? 

A. All primary activities differentiate the firm

B. The managers’ choice of activities to be examined influences the mission statement of the firm

C. The nature of value chains and the relative importance of the activities within them are standard across industries

D. The relative importance of value activities can vary by a company’s position in a broader value system that includes the value chains of its upstream suppliers and downstream customers or partners

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 2

 

33. (p. 151) It is especially important that managers take into account their level of ________ when comparing their cost structure for activities on their value chain with those of key competitors. 

A. Competition

B. Horizontal integration

C. Vertical integration

D. Concentric diversification

 

 

Difficulty: Difficult

Learning Objective: 2

 

 

 

34. (p. 153) The _______ is a new perspective on understanding a firm’s success based on how well the firm uses its internal resources. 

A. Resource-based view

B. Value chain view

C. Corporate view

D. Functional view

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 3

 

35. (p. 153) What is the underlying premise of the resource-based view? 

A. Firms generally have very similar capabilities stemming from almost identical resources

B. Imitation of resources is the best way to achieve competitive advantages

C. Firms differ in fundamental ways because each firm possesses a unique bundle of resources

D. Firms’ intangible resources can be very difficult to imitate

 

 

Difficulty: Difficult

Learning Objective: 3

 

36. (p. 154) Which of the following is NOT a basic resource for any firm? 

A. Tangible assets

B. Core outputs

C. Intangible assets

D. Organizational capabilities

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 3

 

37. (p. 154) The most easily identified assets, often found on a firm’s balance sheet, are called: 

A. Intangible assets

B. Tangible assets

C. Capabilities

D. Competencies

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 3

 

 

 

38. (p. 154) Which of the following is NOT an example of an intangible asset? 

A. Financial resources

B. Brand names

C. Company reputation

D. Organizational morale

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 3

 

39. (p. 156) Which of the following is NOT one of the RBV guidelines? 

A. Resources are more valuable when they are critical to being able to meet a customer’s need better than other alternatives

B. Resources are more valuable when they are non-durable

C. Resources are most valuable when they are scarce

D. Resources are most valuable when they drive a key portion of overall profits

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 3

 

40. (p. 156) Consider Company A, a financial services company specializing in small business issues, whose location is in a shopping mall in the suburbs and Company B, a similar business, whose location is downtown between a successful law firm and a courthouse. Company A’s comparative success can be best attributed to which RBV guideline? 

A. Resource are more valuable when they are scarce

B. Resources are more valuable when they are durable

C. Resources are more valuable when they are scarce

D. Resources are more valuable when they are critical to being able to meet a customer’s need better than other alternatives

 

 

Difficulty: Difficult

Learning Objective: 3

 

 

 

41. (p. 156) The availability of substitutes affects which of the RBV guidelines? 

A. Resources are more valuable when they are scarce

B. Resources are more valuable when they are durable

C. Resource are more valuable when they are scarce

D. Resources are more valuable when they are critical to being able to meet a customer’s need better than other alternatives

 

 

Difficulty: Difficult

Learning Objective: 3

 

42. (p. 157) _______ help the firm create resource scarcity by making resources hard to imitate. 

A. Resource bundles

B. Capabilities

C. Isolating mechanisms

D. Tangible resources

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 3

 

43. (p. 157) Which of the following is NOT an example of an isolating mechanism? 

A. Physically unique resources

B. Capital ambiguity

C. Path-dependent resources

D. Economic deterrence

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 3

 

44. (p. 157) ________ are very difficult to imitate because of the difficult, sometimes complicated path another firm must follow to create the resource. 

A. Path-dependent resources

B. Physically unique resources

C. Economic resources

D. Ambiguous resources

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 3

 

 

 

45. (p. 158) Which of the following involves large capital investments in capacity to provide products or services in a given market that are scale sensitive? 

A. Path-dependence

B. Casual ambiguity

C. Physical uniqueness

D. Economic deterrence

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 3

 

46. (p. 157) Brand loyalty, employee satisfaction and a reputation for fairness are items that: 

A. Are easy to imitate

B. Can be imitated, but may not be

C. Cannot be imitated

D. Are difficult to imitate

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 3

 

47. (p. 159) Which of the following statements is true? 

A. The faster a resource depreciates, the more valuable it is

B. The slower a resource depreciates, the more valuable it is

C. The larger a resource or asset, the more slowly it depreciates

D. Intangible assets can have their depletion measures easily

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 3

 

48. (p. 159) In the increasingly hypercompetitive global economy today, distinctive competencies and competitive advantages: 

A. Are commonplace

B. Are a prerequisite to being in business for the short-term

C. Are particularly durable

D. Can fade quickly

 

 

Difficulty: Difficult

Learning Objective: 3

 

 

 

49. (p. 159) Which of the following illustrates what it means to utilize a functional perspective? 

A. Looking at different functional areas of the firm, disaggregating tangible and intangible assets as well as organizational capabilities that are present, can begin to uncover important value-building resources that deserve further analysis

B. Dividing categories by function into more specific competencies can allow a more measurable assessment

C. Taking a creative look at what competencies the firm possesses (or has the potential to possess) can help identify sources of competitive advantage

D. The value chain approach can uncover organizational capabilities, activities and processes that are potential sources of competitive advantage

 

 

Difficulty: Difficult

Learning Objective: 4

 

50. (p. 159) Which of the following combinations provides the best sources of competitive advantage? 

A. Resources/capabilities that are scarce, durable and sustainable

B. Resources/capabilities that are central to meeting a customer need better than other alternatives and are inimitable

C. Resources/capabilities that are durable, scarce and appropriable to the firm

D. Resources/capabilities that are directly appropriable to the firm, inimitable, durable and meet customer needs better than other alternatives

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 3

 

51. (p. 162) When a strategist uses the firm’s historical experience as a basis for evaluating internal factors, he or she is performing a: 

A. Comparison with key competitors

B. Comparison with success factors in the industry

C. Comparison with past performance

D. Comparison with industry benchmarks

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 4

 

 

 

52. (p. 162) A manager’s assessment of whether a certain internal factor–like financial capacity–is a strength or weakness will be most strongly influenced by: 

A. The relative strength of other factors

B. The factor’s flexibility within the organization

C. The manager’s experience in connection with that factor

D. The manger’s perception of that factor in other firms

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 4

 

53. (p. 162) Using historical experience as a basis for identifying strengths and weaknesses can be likened to: 

A. Market myopia

B. Tunnel vision

C. Management myopia

D. Benchmarking

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 4

 

54. (p. 162) The differences in internal resources among companies in the same industry: 

A. Can become relative strengths or weaknesses depending on the strategy a firm chooses

B. Almost always result in competitive advantages based on relative strengths or weaknesses

C. Arise from benchmarking

D. Are easily observed and relative strengths are easily imitated

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 4

 

 

 

55. (p. 162) _______ is a method of comparing the way a company performs a specific activity with a competitor, potential competitor or company doing the same thing. 

A. Benchmarking

B. Imitating

C. Value chain analysis

D. Vertical integration

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 4

 

56. (p. 162) Company X’s principal strength is its inbound and outbound logistics system; its relative weakness, however is after-sales service. Its competitor, Company Y, however is often plagued with lagging shipments and an inflexible distribution setup. Company Y remains successful because it maintains a fully staffed service department and as a result the company is known for its dependable service. _______ allows them to identify ways to build on relative strengths and avoid dependence on capabilities at which the other firm excels. 

A. Industry comparison

B. Benchmarking

C. Past performance comparison

D. Disaggregating

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 4

 

57. (p. 163) _______ involve(s) identifying the factors associate with successful participation in a given industry. 

A. The resource-based view

B. Value chain analysis

C. Industry analysis

D. Porter’s generic strategies

 

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: 4

 

 

 

58. (p. 163) Which of the following is a useful framework against which to examine a firm’s potential strengths and weaknesses in a given industry? 

A. Isolating mechanisms

B. The value chain

C. Organizational capabilities

D. Porter’s five forces

 

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: 4

 

59. (p. 163) A company producing toilet paper, tissues and other consumer paper goods can work to establish the right product lines, with reasonable sales volumes, profit margins and growth potential in order to generate: 

A. Supplier power to face massive buyer power in retail customers

B. Buyer power for the end-consumers

C. Supplier power for the retail chains

D. Regional advantages over buyers

 

 

Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective: 4

 

60. (p. 165) ________ is one way to identify success factors against which executives can evaluate their firm’s competencies relative to its key product or products. 

A. Corporate strategy

B. Product life cycle

C. Diversification

D. Agglomeration

 

 

Corporate Governance

 

Governance mechanisms are considered to be effective if they meet the needs of all stakeholders, including shareholders. Governance mechanisms are also an important way to ensure that strategic decisions are made effectively. As a potential employee, how would you go about investigating a firm’s governance structure? Would that investigation weigh in your decision to become an employee?

Identify a firm that you would like to join or one that you just find interesting. Complete the following research on your target firm:

  • Find a copy of the company’s most recent proxy statement and 10-K. Proxy statements are mailed to shareholders prior to each year’s annual meeting and contain detailed information about the company’s governance and present issues on which a shareholder vote might be held. Proxy statements are typically available from a firm’s website (look for an “Investors” submenu). You can also access proxy statements and other government filings such as the 10-K from the SEC’s EDGAR database.

    Click here to access SEC’s EDGAR database.

    Alongside the proxy, you should also be able to access the firm’s annual 10-K. Here you will find information on performance, governance, and the firm’s outlook, among other things.

  • Identify one of the company’s main competitors for comparison purposes. You can find this information using company analysis tools such as Datamonitor.

Some of the topics that you should examine include:

  • Compensation plans (for both the CEO and board members; be sure to look for any difference between fixed and incentive compensation)
  • Board composition (for example, board size, insiders and outsiders, interlocking directorates, functional experience, how many active CEOs, how many retired CEOs, what is the demographic makeup, age diversity, and so on)
  • Committees (how many, composition, compensation)
  • Stock ownership by officers and directors—identify beneficial ownership from stock owned (you will need to look through the notes sections of the ownership tables to comprehend this)
  • Ownership concentration—evaluate the firm’s outstanding stock owned by institutions, individuals, and insiders and identify the no. of large-block shareholders (owners of five percent or more of stock)

In addition, answer the following questions:

  • Does the firm utilize a duality structure for the CEO?
  • Is there a lead director who is not an officer of the company?
  • What are the activities by activist shareholders regarding corporate governance issues of concern?
  • Are there any managerial defense tactics employed by the firm? For example, what does it take for a shareholder proposal to come to a vote and be adopted?
  • What is the firm’s code of conduct? List them.

Prepare a double-spaced memo summarizing the results of your findings with a side-by-side comparison of your target and its competitor. Your memo should include the following topics:

  • Summarize what you consider to be the key aspects of the firm’s governance mechanisms.
  • Attach to your memo a single graph covering the last 10-year historical stock performance for both companies. If applicable, compare both using a representative index such as the Standard & Poor’s (S&P), National Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotation (NASDAQ), or other applicable industry index.
  • Highlight key differences between your target firm and its competitor.
  • Based on your review of the firm’s governance, discuss any change in your opinion of the firm’s desirability as an employer. How does the competitor stack up, governance wise? Why or why not?

MGMT640 FINAL EXAM

1) Management accounting plays a role in
A planning new products.
B evaluating operational processes.
C controlling costs.
D all of the above.

2) Management accounting, managers are more concerned with receiving information that is:
A completely objective and verifiable.
B completely accurate and precise.
C relevant, flexible, and immediately available.
D relevant, completely accurate, and precise.

3) Which one of the following costs should NOT be considered a direct cost of serving a particular customer who orders a customized personal computer by phone directly from the manufacturer?
A the cost of the hard disk drive installed in the computer.
B the cost of shipping the computer to the customer.
C the cost of leasing a machine on a monthly basis that automatically tests hard disk drives before they are installed in computers.
D the cost of packaging the computer for shipment.

4) At its present level of operations, a small manufacturing firm has total variable costs equal to 65% of sales and total fixed costs equal to 20% of sales. If sales change by $1.00, operating income will change by
A $0.15
B $0.35
C $0.65
D An answer can’t be determined from this information.

5) ACME company has the following production costs for May:
units produced 2,000
Direct Material $20,000
Direct Labor 4,000 hrs @ $15 per hour
Supplies $5,000
Rent $2,000
Depreciation $3,000
Supervision $8,000
In June they plan to produce 3,000 units. What is their production cost per unit for May and total production costs for June?
A $49; $140,500
B $49; $147,000
C $43; $86,000
D $43; $129,000

6. The goal of managerial accounting is to provide information that managers need for
A. planning.
B. control.
C. decision making.
D. All of the above answers are correct.

7. Shareef’s Window Company is in the process of preparing a production cost budget for August. Actual costs in July for 120 windows were:
Materials cost $ 4,800
Labor cost 3,000
Rent 1,500
Depreciation 2,500
Other fixed costs 3,200
Total $15,000

The company is currently producing and selling 144 windows annually and each window is sold for $140.00. The company is considering lowering the price to $125.00 for which management estimates this will increase sales to 200 windows. Materials and labor are the only variable costs. Under what situation should the company lower the price of its windows?
A. If total revenue exceeds totals costs under the new pricing
B. If incremental revenue exceeds the old revenue
C. If incremental profit is a positive number
D. If incremental costs decrease

8. Which of the following is not usually a responsibility of the controller?
A. preparing budgets and performance reports
B. filing tax returns
C. managing cash and marketable securities
D. providing information for management decisions

9. A company purchases machinery costing $50,000 in October of 2006. Five years later they discover a better, more efficient machine they could purchase to replace the existing machine. The new machine costs $90,000 and the company has determined that they would be able to sell the original machine for $30,000. In making the decision about buying the new machine, how much are total sunk costs?
A. $60,000
B. $40,000
C. $50,000
D. $10,000

10. Mixed costs are the same as:
A. Semivariable costs
B. Step costs
C. Total production costs
D. Discretionary fixed costs
E. A & C only

11. The Contribution margin ratio is found by:
A. Subtracting total fixed costs from sales and dividing this by the number of units produced.
B. Adding total variable costs and fixed costs and dividing by the selling price per unit
C. Taking the selling price per unit and subtracting variable costs from it and dividing by the selling price per unit.
D. Dividing total fixed and variable costs by the selling price per unit.
E. B & C only.

12. John’s Camera is currently selling cameras at a price of $100. The cameras have a variable cost of $75 per camera and John’s Camera has a total fixed cost of $100,000. John’s Camera is currently selling 5,000 units of cameras. John’s Camera is considering changing its production process. With the change in production, John’s Camera will lower its fixed to $80,000 but raise its variable costs to $90 per unit. Should John’s Camera go forward with the change in production process?

A. Yes, because the new production process lowers fixed costs by $20,000
B. Yes, because the new production process raises the contribution margin
C. No, because the new production process leads to a decline in profits by $55,000.
D. No, because the new production process raises the variable costs by $15 per unit.

13. A company sells two products – X and Y. Product X is sold at a price of $50 and has a variable cost of $25. Product Y is sold at a price of $25 and has a variable cost of $20. Product X and Y are sold in equal amounts. How many units of Product X must be sold in order to breakeven if the company has $100,000 in fixed costs?

A. 3,333
B. 5,000
C. 6,667
D. 2,000

14. Cost-Volume Profit analysis cannot be performed when:

a. Costs can be accurately separated into fixed and variable components.
b. Fixed and variable costs change over different activity levels.
c. Contribution margin is based on the difference between selling price and variable costs.
d. Breakeven point is calculated based upon the fixed costs divided by the contribution margin.

15. A company produces products A, B, and C. The company has excess capacity. Products A, B, and C have a contribution margin of 10, 15, and 20, respectively. Products A, B, and C have a contribution margin per hour of 10, 5, and 6.67 respectively. Assume that the scarce resource for the firm is time, that is if an hour more is spent on producing one more product, there would be an hour less spent on producing another product. The company should produce:

a. Product A because it has the highest contribution margin per hour.
b. Product C because it has the highest contribution margin.
c. Either Product A or C because they have the highest contribution margin or contribution margin per hour.
d. The answer cannot be determined because we do not know the number of available machine hours.

16. A company is using the high-low method and has determined the following production for the months of January, February, March, and April of 6,000, 5,000, 5,550, and 2,000, respectively. During the same months, the costs were $500,000, 400,000, 425,000, and 200,000. The fixed costs are:

a. 150,000
b. 450,000
c. 50,000
d. 75,000

17. Three cost incurred by the Kenyon Company are summarized below:
1,000 Units 2,000 Units
Cost A $10,000 $9,000
Cost B $21,000 $21,000
Cost C $16,000 $32,000

Which of these costs are variable?
A. A, B and C
B. A and C
C. A Only
D. C Only
18: Conan Company’s monthly activity level ranged from a low of 17,000 units in May to a high of 26,000 units in October. Average production was 20,000 units per month. Utilities cost was $8,250 in May and $10,500 in October. The variable utility cost per unit, to the nearest cent, is:
A. $0.25
B. $0.40
C. $0.47
D. $0.49

Information for questions 19 and 20: Briar Tek has fixed costs of $700,000. Selling price per unit is $180 and Variable cost per unit is $110.

19: How many units must Briar Tek Sell to earn a profit of $560,000?
A. 10,000
B. 14,000
C. 18,000
D. 20,000

20: A new employee suggests that Briar Tek sponsor a little league baseball team as a form of advertising. The cost to sponsor the team is $3,500. How many more units must be sold to cover this cost?
A. 25
B. 40
C. 50
D. 45

21. When activity based costing is implemented, the initial outcome is normally that:
A. the cost of all products will be higher.
B. The cost of all products will be lower
C. The cost of low volume products will be higher and the cost of high volume products will be lower
D. The cost of low volume products will be lower and the cost of high volume products will be higher.

22. Which of the following is likely to occur when more overhead cost pools are used?
A. Product costs will be more accurate.
B. Recordkeeping will be more expensive.
C. Decisions such as product pricing will be improved.
D. All of the above are true.

23. Tyler’s Consulting Company has purchased a new $15,000 copier. This overhead cost will be shared by the purchasing, accounting, and information technology departments since those are the only departments which will be able to access the machine. The company has decided to allocate the cost based on the number of copies made by each department. The copier is estimated to provide 1 million copies over its life. Each division has estimated the number of copies which will be made over the life of the copier.
Purchasing 350,000
Accounting 200,000
Information Tech 425,000
Note: Cost allocations are computed to 4 significant digits. Resulting values are rounded to the whole dollar.
If the purchasing department makes 140,260 copies this year what will be their allocated overhead?
A. $25,200
B. $70,200
C. $1,109
D. $2,160

24. Which of the following costs are always incremental and relevant in decision analysis?
A. opportunity costs and joint costs
B. joint costs and avoidable costs
C. avoidable costs and opportunity costs
D. sunk costs and avoidable costs

25. The Tobias Company has 12 obsolete computers that are carried in inventory at a cost of $13,200. If these computers are upgraded at a cost of $7,500, they could be sold for $19,500. Alternatively, the computers could be sold “as is” for $9,000. What is the net advantage or disadvantage of re-working the computers?
A. $12,000 advantage
B. $1,200 disadvantage
C. $10,200 disadvantage
D. $3,000 advantage

26. One of the shortcomings of traditional managerial accounting systems is that
a. very little emphasis is put on reducing costs.
b. too much effort is focused on product quality.
c. not enough focus is put on activities that drive costs.
d. too much emphasis is put on costs.

27. Fast Delivery Company delivers packages and business documents for local businesses located in the Houston metropolitan area. If the company decided to adopt an ABC costing system to accumulate costs for its service, what would be an appropriate cost driver to use for the cost of the packaging envelopes provided to customers?
a. Number of miles to be driven in the delivery
b. Number of customers
c. Amount of fuel used in the truck
d. Number of packages

28. Match a potential cost driver with an appropriate activity pool on the right.
a. Number of setups: material receiving costs
b. Number of inspections: machine setup costs
c. Number of receipts: factory costs
d. Number of machine hours: factory costs

29. A retailer purchased some trendy clothes that have gone out of style and must be marked down to 20% of the original selling price in order to be sold. Which of the following is a sunk cost in this situation?
a. the original selling price
b. the original purchase price
c. the anticipated profit
d. the current selling price

30. A company using activity based pricing marks up the direct cost of goods by 30% plus charges customers for indirect costs based on the activities utilized by the customer. Indirect costs are charged as follows: $8.00 per order placed; $4.00 per separate item ordered; $30.00 per return. A customer places 10 orders with a total direct cost of $3,000, orders 300 separate items, and makes 5 returns. What will the customer be charged?
a. $5,330
b. $3,000
c. $5,759
d. $3,900

31: When considering a process that involves a resource constraint, the optimal decision
A. minimizes the break-even point.
B. minimizes the contribution margin per unit of output.
C. maximizes the contribution margin per unit of the constraint.
D. minimizes total fixed costs.

32: A company has $25 per unit in variable costs and $1,000,000 per year in fixed costs. Demand is estimated to be 100,000 units annually. What is the price if a markup of 40% on total cost is used to determine the price?
A) $35
B) $49
C) $27
D) $42

33: The price which maximizes revenues is the price that should be selected.
A) True
B) False

34: A manufacturing company produces and sells 20,000 units of a single product. Total production costs are $14/unit. If the total sales are $560,000 what mark up percentage is the company using?
A) 100%
B) 10%
C) 200%
D) 40%

35: A company has a total cost of $50.00 per unit at a volume of 100,000 units. The variable cost per unit is $20.00. What would the price be if the company expected a volume of 120,000 units and used a markup of 50%?
A) $75.00
B) $62.50
C) There is not enough information in the problem to answer
D) $67.50

36: Which of the following are relevant in deciding whether to accept or reject a special order?
A. The impact the order will have on existing business.
B. The price that will be charged on the special order.
C. The incremental cost of filling the special order.
D. All of the above.

37: Contreras Company has a capacity of 40,000 units per year and is currently selling all 40,000 for $400 each. Buerhle Company has approached Contreras about buying 2,000 units for only $300 each. The units would be packaged in bulk, saving Contreras $20 per unit when compared to the normal packaging cost.
Normally, Contreras has a variable cost of $280 per unit. The annual fixed cost of $2,000,000 would be unaffected by the special order. What would be the impact on profits if Contreras were to accept this special order?
A. Profits would decrease $200,000
B. Profits would decrease $160,000
C. Profits would increase $60,000
D. Profits would increase more than $60,000

38: The Radek Company uses cost-plus pricing with a 30% mark-up. The company is currently selling 80,000 units at $65 per unit. Each unit has a variable cost of $47. In addition, the company incurs $240,000 in fixed costs annually. If demand falls to 40,000 units and the company wants to continue to charge the same price what profit margin percent will the company earn?
A. 22.6%
B. 26.2%
C. 57.5%
D. 30%

39: Shavon company has total fixed costs of $6,000,000 and total variable cost of $3,000,000 at a volume level of 300,000 units. What price would be charged if the company used cost plus pricing and a markup of 25%?
A. $30.00
B. $37.50
C. $25.00
D. $12.50

40: What is the basic premise of target costing?
A. Products should be designed to meet customer needs at a price customers are willing to pay that allows the company to make a reasonable profit.
B. Products should be designed to include as many features as possible.
C. Products should be designed based on what features are technologically possible, and then marketed to customers at a price that covers the costs of design.
D. Customers are generally willing to pay for whatever companies design, so cost should not be a factor in the design process.

BUSN – Business 101 Reveiw Questions

TRUE/FALSE
____1. The chain of command defines lines of authority throughout the company.
____2. Tactical planning usually involves short term statements.
____3. A reason for imposing trade restrictions would be to protect jobs of domestic workers.
____4. A problem for corporate stockholders is double taxation.
____5. Reverse discrimination works against whites or males.
____6. Theory Y assumes employees generally do not like to work.
____7. All general partners share in decision making and in unlimited financial liability.
____8. Line people are directly involved with achieving company goals.
____9. Job analysis describes what employees do.
____10. GATT and WTO were designed to increase international trade among member nations.
____11. Flextime schedules are very rigid.
____12. Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act outlaws age discrimination.
____13. An advantage of a franchise is a nationally recognized name.
____14. In a closed corporation, common stock is owned by a large number of shareholders.
____15. The Hawthorne Studies by Elton Mayo showed that human factors are important in
regard to motivation.
____16. A positive balance of trade means that you have imported more goods than you have
exported.
____17. Frederick Taylor was very involved with Scientific Management.
____18. In a decentralized organization, top management tightly controls all aspects of the
company.
____19. An S corporation is taxed like a sole proprietorship or a partnership.
____20. Cafeteria fringe benefits give employees choices.
.
SHORT ESSAY
1. What is benchmarking?

2. What are the five levels of Maslow’s Hierarchy?

3. In international trade, define the concept of an import duty or tariff.

4. What is done by management during the control function?

5. What do job specifications explain?

6. What is unlimited liability in regard to a sole proprietorship?

Business Situation
Describe the steps involved with the selection or hiring process for a new employee.

TRUE/FALSE
____1. A pull strategy is directed to consumers.
____2. Agents or brokers do not take title to any goods, they just transfer them.
____3. Place utility makes a product available where customers want it.
____4. Personal selling makes heavy use of electronic media.
____5. In market research, the first step is to define the question or problem.
____6. Unsought goods are products that consumers do not know that they need.
____7. A product line is a grouping of products that are very similar in nature.
____8. Private label brands carry a distributor or retailer’s name.
____9. Packaging does not normally have to attract the buyer’s attention.
____10. Using the product life cycle normally has no benefit to the marketing department.
____11. Primary data is taken from published sources.
____12. Brand association normally connects a brand to some type of favorable or positive
image.
____13. An example of non-store retailing is direct selling.
____14. An advantage of internet marketing is that it can be accessed anytime.
____15. Creating an image may be a price objective.
____16. Penetration pricing sets a relatively high price for a new product entering the market
and, then, the price is decreased after some interval.
____17. In personal selling, you normally do not have direct contact with the customer.
____18. A sales promotion activity might be sponsorship of an event.
____19. During the decline stage of the product life cycle, marketers must redesign products to
accelerate market trends.
____20. Publicity is always paid for by the company seeking to get attention.
.
SHORT ESSAY
7. When you try to close the sale, what is your ultimate goal?

8. What happened in the production era of marketing?

9. What is a market segment?

10. Briefly explain the concept of supply-chain management.

11. What does a merchant wholesaler do?

12. What are the four elements of a marketing mix?

Business Situation
You are a salesperson for Proctor and gamble selling Tide detergent. List and describe in detail
the seven tasks that you or any other salesperson must perform in your profession.
Relate these tasks to Tide detergent..

TRUE/FALSE
____1. A pull strategy is directed to consumers.
____2. Agents or brokers do not take title to any goods, they just transfer them.
____3. Place utility makes a product available where customers want it.
____4. Personal selling makes heavy use of electronic media.
____5. In market research, the first step is to define the question or problem.
____6. Unsought goods are products that consumers do not know that they need.
____7. A product line is a grouping of products that are very similar in nature.
____8. Private label brands carry a distributor or retailer’s name.
____9. Packaging does not normally have to attract the buyer’s attention.
____10. Using the product life cycle normally has no benefit to the marketing department.
____11. Primary data is taken from published sources.
____12. Brand association normally connects a brand to some type of favorable or positive
image.
____13. An example of non-store retailing is direct selling.
____14. An advantage of internet marketing is that it can be accessed anytime.
____15. Creating an image may be a price objective.

____16. Penetration pricing sets a relatively high price for a new product entering the market
and, then, the price is decreased after some interval.
____17. In personal selling, you normally do not have direct contact with the customer.
____18. A sales promotion activity might be sponsorship of an event.
____19. During the decline stage of the product life cycle, marketers must redesign products to
accelerate market trends.
____20. Publicity is always paid for by the company seeking to get attention.
.
SHORT ESSAY
1. When you try to close the sale, what is your ultimate goal?

2. What happened in the production era of marketing?

3. What is a market segment?

4. Briefly explain the concept of supply-chain management.

5. What does a merchant wholesaler do?

6. What are the four elements of a marketing mix?

Business Situation
You are a salesperson for Proctor and gamble selling Tide detergent. List and describe in detail
the seven tasks that you or any other salesperson must perform in your profession.
Relate these tasks to Tide detergent..

TRUE/FALSE
____1. A secured bond is backed by collateral.

____2. Preferred stockholders always have the right to vote.
____3. A debit card withdraws money from a checking account.
____4. Junk bonds usually have a low amount of risk.
____5. Investment bankers help to issue and sell securities.
____6. Equity funding consists of money borrowed from outside sources.
____7. In factoring, you sell your accounts payable.
____8. A short time financial forecast is normally done for a year time frame.
____9. A certificate of deposit is a savings account that earns interest.
____10. Common stockholders have the right to vote.
____11. Liquidity means the speed in which you can convert something into cash.
____12. Normally, only highly regarded customers can get unsecured loans.
____13. Undercapitalization means a company does not have enough money to start a business
properly.
____14. Stockholders never have to be paid.
____15. The discount rate is the interest rate charged by the Federal Reserve to member banks
for loans.
____16. Diversification concentrates all of your funds in one area.
____17. An operating budget is normally used to make plans to buy major assets that cost a lot of
money.
____18. A demand deposit is also known as a checking account.
____19. The Dow Jones and other indices give an idea of how the stock market is doing.
____20. Leverage means that you borrow money to increase a company’s rate of return.
.
SHORT ESSAY
1. What is the maturity date of a bond?

2. Define revolving credit.

3. What are retained earnings?

4. If you buy stocks on margin, what does that mean?

5. List two disadvantages of bonds.

6. What is the reserve requirement in regard to commercial banks?

Business Situation
Explain how the federal reserve System can increase or decrease the nation’s supply of money
through the use of open market operations.
TRUE/FALSE
____1. A secured bond is backed by collateral.
____2. Preferred stockholders always have the right to vote.
____3. A debit card withdraws money from a checking account.
____4. Junk bonds usually have a low amount of risk.
____5. Investment bankers help to issue and sell securities.
____6. Equity funding consists of money borrowed from outside sources.
____7. In factoring, you sell your accounts payable.
____8. A short time financial forecast is normally done for a year time frame.
____9. A certificate of deposit is a savings account that earns interest.
____10. Common stockholders have the right to vote.
____11. Liquidity means the speed in which you can convert something into cash.
____12. Normally, only highly regarded customers can get unsecured loans.
____13. Undercapitalization means a company does not have enough money to start a business
properly.
____14. Stockholders never have to be paid.
____15. The discount rate is the interest rate charged by the Federal Reserve to member banks
for loans.
____16. Diversification concentrates all of your funds in one area.
____17. An operating budget is normally used to make plans to buy major assets that cost a lot of
money.
____18. A demand deposit is also known as a checking account.
____19. The Dow Jones and other indices give an idea of how the stock market is doing.
____20. Leverage means that you borrow money to increase a company’s rate of return.
.
SHORT ESSAY
1. What is the maturity date of a bond?

2. Define revolving credit.

3. What are retained earnings?

4. If you buy stocks on margin, what does that mean?

5. List two disadvantages of bonds.

6. What is the reserve requirement in regard to commercial banks?

Business Situation
Explain how the federal reserve System can increase or decrease the nation’s supply of money
through the use of open market operations.

Black History

 

Initial post of at least 250 words.Ensure to cite correctly.

 

 



 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

“What was the famous case of the Scottsboro Boys??”

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Ashford University – BUS 681 Compensation and Benefits – week 3 DBs plus assignment

Ashford 4: – Week 3 (Mar 04 – Mar 10)

Week Three Learning Outcomes

This week students will:

  • Discuss the components of developing a market competitive pay system.
  • Outline the job evaluation process.

Overview

Assignment

Due Date

Format

Grading Percent

Discussion 1: Building Blocks Day 3
(1st post)
Discussion

3
Discussion 2: Job Analysis Day 3
(1st post)
Discussion

3
Assignment: Market Competitiveness Day 7 Written Assignment

7

Readings

  1. Read the following chapters in your text, Strategic Compensation:
    • Chapter 6: Building Internally Consistent Compensation Systems
    • Chapter 7: Building Market-Competitive Compensations Systems
    • Chapter 8: Building Pay Structures That Recognize Employee Contributions

Recommended Readings

  1. Read the following journal article for further insight into this week’s topics:
    • Earle, J. (2010). The emerging role of Clawback policies for managing risk in compensation programs. Benefits Law Journal, 23(1), 72-79.  Retrieved from the Proquest database.
  2. You will find a list of websites that you may find useful under Course Materials in your online classroom.

Discussions
To participate in the following discussions, go to this week’s Discussion link in the left navigation.

  1. Building Blocks
     
    Discuss the basic building blocks of developing a market competitive pay system, including the relationship between internal and external equity. Respond to at least two of your fellow students’ postings. 
     
  2. Job Analysis
     
    Provide a brief overview of the job evaluation process, including the importance of compensable factors.  Detail the compensable factors of a position you are familiar with and their impact on that position’s salary, and you may want to reference the job analysis and job description process, which form the foundation of job evaluation. Identify at least four pitfalls that exist for organizations that do not follow this process.  Respond to at least two of your fellow students’ postings. 

Assignment
To complete the following assignment, go to this week’s Assignment link in the left navigation. 

Market Competitiveness

Compose a 3-5 page paper that assesses the concept of market competitiveness in relation to an organization’s pay system, particularly when it is unable to offer its employees market competitive salaries because of a lack of financial resources. Propose alternative approaches for organizations which have limited financial resources and outline at least three specific steps that could be taken to minimize the impact this could have on the firm’s success.

Carefully review the Grading Rubric for the criteria that will be used to evaluate your assignment. 

Affirmative Action

As the manager of human resources (HR) in a medium-size company that is involved with several Affirmative Action initiatives, you have noticed that the racial makeup of your workforce has an increasing number of multiracial employees (or workers who are the offspring of a biracial couple). You are wondering how these employees should be counted in any kind of attempt to implement Affirmative Action.

In other words, if future hiring is meant to make the workforce relatively proportionate to the population’s racial mix, should workers who are, for example, offspring of an African-American mother and a Caucasian father be counted as White, African-American, or neither? Explain your answer.

Discuss the following information:

  • The trend being seen in the general population in terms of people who could be characterized as biracial.
  • Study the following table and comment on the views of multiracial people regarding Affirmative Action found  

    Interviewees’ Attitudes Toward Affirmative Action

    View on Affirmative Action

    Overall

    Pro-AA and in favor of biracial persons qualifying

    58%

    Mixed feelings about AA but believe all biracial persons should qualify

    23%

    Pro-AA but unsure whether or not biracial persons who appear white should qualify

    4%

    Pro-AA but believe biracial persons who appear white should not qualify

    4%

    Opposed to AA but believe biracial persons should qualify as long as it exists

    11.5%

    (Korgen, 1999)

 How do you think biracial people should be counted in terms of Affirmative Action initiatives? Explain your answer from an objective perspective. This should be the main focus in your discussion.

An ounce of prevention is worth a pound of cure

 This week’s second discussion forum will focus on the populations of the chronically ill and the disabled.

You may be familiar with the common quote “An ounce of prevention is worth a pound of cure.” In reality, however, you may know of a person, family, or group who is not receiving adequate preventive or medical care due to a lack of resources and funds. Identify one specific illness or disability and address the following:

  • Research and discuss two available preventive care services within your immediate community and within the U.S. and briefly describe all four services.
  • Is the continuum of care adequate or insufficient to meet the health needs of the group? Why or Why not?

Your initial contribution should be 250 to 300 words in length. Your research and claims must be supported by a minimum of two scholarly sources beyond your course text
This week’s second discussion forum will focus on the populations of the chronically ill and the disabled.

You may be familiar with the common quote “An ounce of prevention is worth a pound of cure.” In reality, however, you may know of a person, family, or group who is not receiving adequate preventive or medical care due to a lack of resources and funds. Identify one specific illness or disability and address the following:

  • Research and discuss two available preventive care services within your immediate community and within the U.S. and briefly describe all four services.
  • Is the continuum of care adequate or insufficient to meet the health needs of the group? Why or Why not?

Your initial contribution should be 250 to 300 words in length. Your research and claims must be supported by a minimum of two scholarly sources beyond your course text
This week’s second discussion forum will focus on the populations of the chronically ill and the disabled.

You may be familiar with the common quote “An ounce of prevention is worth a pound of cure.” In reality, however, you may know of a person, family, or group who is not receiving adequate preventive or medical care due to a lack of resources and funds. Identify one specific illness or disability and address the following:

  • Research and discuss two available preventive care services within your immediate community and within the U.S. and briefly describe all four services.
  • Is the continuum of care adequate or insufficient to meet the health needs of the group? Why or Why not?

Your initial contribution should be 250 to 300 words in length. Your research and claims must be supported by a minimum of two scholarly sources beyond your course text