taking action

Assignment 2: LASA 1: Taking Action

In this course, you have been introduced to ethics, social problems, and social policy. This assignment will prompt action from you to help resolve a social issue. You must learn about a problem, find a piece of legislation addressing your concern, and act to help solve the problem.

Using the textbook, the Argosy University online library resources, and the Internet, do the following:

1. Identify the Problem

Select and research a social issue based on the course readings or personal interest.

Then, address the following:

  • Define and describe the social issue in detail using a variety of relevant outside sources.
  • Explain the social context of the social issue.
  • Identify and describe ethical concerns related to the social issue.
  • Determine what population is most impacted by the social issue.

2. Find the Legislation

Use credible government sources to find and learn about a piece of legislation related to your chosen social problem or issue.

Then, address the following:

  • Explain how the piece of current legislation relates to the social problem or issue. Make sure you provide a description of the piece of legislation.

3. Write an Advocacy Letter

In order to help resolve the social issue, you must take action. Identify your elected representative(s) and find their contact and e-mail addresses.

Write an advocacy letter regarding the piece of legislation and your support of or opposition to it.

The purpose of an advocacy letter is to support or oppose the legislation that affects a social issue of concern to you. This letter is a way for representatives to stay in touch with the constituents they represent. The letter consists of a brief introduction identifying and addressing the social issue of concern (through personal experience, if applicable), an identification of the piece of current legislation that addresses your chosen issue, and your request advocating your representative to support or oppose the legislation.

Be sure to address the following in your letter:

  • Identify the purpose of your letter.
  • Identify House bill (HR) or Senate bill (S) number of the legislation.
  • Briefly summarize the social problem or issue.
  • Explain the importance of the legislation as it relates to your issue.
  • Advocate for or against the legislation in a knowledgeable and respectful tone. This includes the following:
    • Evaluating the proposed impact of the legislation on target population
    • Proposing possible ways the legislation can influence the social problem or issue

Download and review samples of advocacy letters. Use either of the sample letters as a template for your own letter.

Write a 3–5-page report in Word format that begins with an Advocacy Letter followed by a supporting report of 3–5-pages. Apply APA standards to citation of sources. Use the following file naming convention: LastnameFirstInitial_M3_A2.doc.

By Wednesday, September 24, 2014, deliver your assignment to the M3: Assignment 2 Dropbox.

Assignment 2 Grading Criteria
Maximum Points
Identify the Problem: Define and describe the social issue in detail using relevant outside sources. (Course Objective [CO] 1)
24
Identify the Problem: Identify and describe ethical concerns and population(s) most impacted by this social issue. (CO 1, 4)
28
Finding the Legislation: Explain piece of current legislation related to social problem/issue and evaluate legislation related to social problem or issue. (CO 3, 4)
28
Advocacy Letter: Identify purpose of your letter, as well as, the House bill (HR) or Senate bill (S) number of legislation. (CO 1, 2)
20
Advocacy Letter: Analyze the importance of legislation related to problem or issue. (CO 3, 4)
28
Advocacy Letter: Advocate for or against legislation in knowledgeable and respectable tone. (CO 4)
28
Written Components:
Organization. (12)
Usage and mechanics. (12)
APA elements. (16)
Style. (4)
44
Total:
200
Click here to view the rubric for this assignment.
 

Click here to download a sample advocacy letter.

BSHS/445 assessing the crisis

University of Phoenix Material                      

 

Assessing the Crisis

 

Part One

 

Watch the Scenario 6 video clip, “Crisis Line.” Using the hybrid model, provide an example of each step illustrated in the video.

 

Tasks in the hybrid model

Example of each step

Predispositioning, engaging, and initiating contact

 

Exploring problems: defining the crisis

 

Providing support

 

Examining alternatives

 

Planning in order to reestablish control

 

Obtaining commitment

 

Following up

 

 

Part Two

 

Create a progress note* that captures the ABCs of assessment—affective, behavioral, and cognitive—from the video in Part One. See the following example before completing the table that follows.

 

Affective

Client is a 20-year-old single Caucasian female. She reported feeling upset for the last 2 months since her boyfriend broke up with her. Client appeared to be depressed, as evidenced by tearfulness during the session. Client denied any suicidal or homicidal ideation (SI/HI) and reported no past history of danger to self or others (DTS/DTO).

Behavioral

Client was asked if there have been times in the past that she felt this way. She stated the last time she felt like this was a year ago when she failed her math final. This writer explored strategies with the client that helped the last time she felt this way. The client reported that she has been able to get a lot of assistance from talking with her friends and running. She stated her friends are very supportive and that running helps her feel better about herself. Client agreed that if she continued feeling this way over the next 24 hours, she would call her best friend and go for a run.

Cognitive

Client appeared to be clear and logical in her thinking. Client denied any auditory or visual hallucinations (AH/VH) or delusions. She was future-oriented and has a plan in place if she does not start feeling better. 

 

*A progress note is a note used to document interaction with a client. A good example of a common process note is a SOAP note. Many agencies use the SOAP note to document contact with clients. SOAP notes refer to the following type of assessment: subjective, objective, assessment, and plan.

 

Affective

 

 

 

 

Behavioral

 

 

 

 

Cognitive

 

 

 

 

 

ACC 544 Final EXAM

1) Which is NOT one of the AICPA’s Code of Professional Conduct principles?

   A.   The public interest

  B.   Integrity

  C.   Quality control

  D.   Scope and nature of services

 

2) The ethical philosophy that considers the consequences of similar persons acting under similar circumstances is called

   A.   utilitarian principle.

  B.   imperative principle.

  C.   categorical imperative.

  D.   generalization argument.

 

3) The fundamental issues in independence require that the auditor avoid

  A.   financial connections with the client and financial connections with the client’s competitors.

 B.   acting as management and representing the shareholder’s interests.

 C.   responsibility for the client’s internal control and subordinating judgment concerning audit issues.

 D.   financial connections with the firm and acting as management.

 

4) Auditors have greater liability under the Securities Act of 1933. Which is the reason that this greater liability exists?

   A.   The auditor is liable for treble damages under the Securities Act of 1933.

  B.   The plaintiff does not have to prove that the financial statements were misstated.

  C.   The plaintiff does not have to prove that they relied on the financial statements.

  D.   The plaintiff does not have to prove that there were damages.

 

5) The legal doctrine that states that a successful plaintiff may recover the full amount of damages from any defendant thathas the ability to pay is called

A)        Joint and several liability.

B)        Proportionate liability.

C)        Complete liability.

D)        Total liability.

 

6) The SEC regulation that governs disclosures in annual reports other than financial statements is the

   A.   Securities Act of 1933.

  B.   Securities Exchange Act of 1934.

  C.   Regulation S-X.

  D.   Regulation S-K.

 

7) Inspection of tangible assets provides evidence for which assertion?

  A.   Existence and occurrence

  B.   Completeness

  C.   Rights and obligations

  D.   Presentation and disclosure

 

8) The risk that the auditor may provide an inappropriate opinion based on their review of materially misstated financial statements is referred to as

   A.   audit risk.

  B.   detection risk.

  C.   information risk.

  D.   business risk.

 

9) Auditors perform the steps in which order?

 A.   Determine audit risk; assess control risk; determine detection risk; and set materiality.

 B.   Set materiality; determine audit risk; assess control risk; and determine detection risk.

 C.   Set materiality; assess control risk; determine detection risk; and determine audit risk.

 D.   Determine audit risk; set materiality; assess control risk; and determine detection risk.

 

10) An internal control questionnaire (ICQ) contains the question: “Does a single individual receive and list cato sales and general ledgers?” What action must an auditor take if the manager of accounting responds yes to the

  A.   No action is required because yes responses on an ICQ indicate the presence of good control.

  B.   Statistically sample the response along with all other yes responses to verify their accuracy.

  C.   Treat it as a potential control weakness and perform appropriate testing.

  D.   Include it with other reportable findings in the next audit report.

 

11) In addition to gaining an understanding of the internal controls, an external auditor, at minimum, is expect

 A.   evaluate the internal auditors’ work as an important part of the accounting system element of the inter

 B.   observe client employees to determine the extent of their compliance with quality control standards.

 C.   trace a few transactions through the control process to obtain evidence that the controls have been pla

 D.   study organization charts to obtain an understanding of the informal lines of communication.

 

12) Which method provides the auditor with the best visual grasp of a system and a means for analyzing complex operations?

  A.   A flowcharting approach

  B.   A matrix approach

  C.   A questionnaire approach

  D.   A detailed narrative approach

  

13) Which of the accounts is NOT included in the revenue and collection cycle?

  A.   Cash in bank

  B.   Raw materials

  C.   Accounts receivable

  D.   Bad debt expense

 

14) The most reliable evidence comes from

  A.   a positive confirmation.

  B.   a blank confirmation.

  C.   a negative confirmation.

  D.   examining a sales invoice.

 

15) Custody is transferred from the warehouse to the shipping department upon authorization of the

  A.   shipping order.

  B.   purchase order.

  C.   customer order.

  D.   invoice.

 

16) An enlightened management may decrease the probability of fraud in the company best by

 A.   restricting authority for profit objective determination to top management.

 B.   stressing negative observations on their work to increase performance.

 C.   measuring performance and awarding bonuses on the basis of short-term operating results.

 D.   establishing work teams that share responsibilities, performance, and bonuses based on collective effor

 

17) A proof of cash is normally used

  A.   for all engagements.

  B.   when control risk for cash is low.

  C.   to test the transactions process when controls over cash are weak.

  D.   when lapping is suspected.

 

18) Which is an appropriate audit program step for the review of canceled checks for authorized signatures?

 A.   Compare the check date with the first cancellation date.

 B.   Examine a representative sample of signed checks, and determine that the signatures are authorized in the corporate signature book.

 C.   Determine that all checks are to be signed by an individual authorized by the board.

 D.   Confirm the signatures from a sample of checks directly with the bank.

 

19) The production authorization starts with a

  A.   purchase order.

  B.   sales forecast.

  C.   production plan.

  D.   bill of materials.

 

20) Which is NOT recognized by GAAP as appropriate for determining inventory cost?

  A.   FIFO

  B.   Weighted average

  C.   LIFO

  D.   Standard costs

 

21) Inventory must be recorded when

  A.   the company has title to it.

  B.   the related revenue is recognized.

  C.   it is received.

  D.   it is shipped from the vendor.

  

22) Canceling invoices with a paid stamp after payment is a control that relates to which assertion?

  A.   Existence or occurrence

  B.   Rights and obligations

  C.   Completeness

  D.   Valuation or allocations

 

23) Which is NOT a step in the search for unrecorded liabilities?

  A.   Examine the open purchase order file.

  B.   Examine the unmatched receiving reports.

  C.   Examine disbursements for the period immediately before the end of the period.

  D.   All of these are steps in the search.

 

24) Which control question relates to the existence and occurrence objective in purchasing and accounts payable?

 A.   Are the purchase order forms prenumbered and is the numerical sequence checked for missing documents?

 B.   Does the chart of accounts and accounting manual provide instructions for classifying debit entries?

 C.   Does the accounting department check invoices for mathematical accuracy?

 D.   Are receiving reports prepared for each item received?

 

 25) The audit objective that all transactions and accounts that should be presented in the financial statements are included is related to which assertion?

  A.   Existence or occurrence

  B.   Presentation and disclosure

  C.   Rights and obligations

  D.   Completeness

 

26) Which best describes the main reason independent auditors report on management’s financial statements?

 A.   A management fraud may exist, and it is likely to be detected by independent auditors.

 B.   The management that prepares the statements may have a poorly designed system of internal control.

 C.   The management that prepares the statements and ther persons who use the statements may have conflicting interests.

 D.   Misstated account balances may be corrected as the result of the independent audit work.

 

27) The audit objective that all footnotes have been included in the financial statements is related most closely to which assertation?

  A.   Existence or occurrence

  B.   Presentation and disclosure

  C.   Rights and obligations

 

  D.   Completeness

HRM 531 Final Exam

HRM 531 Final Exam

 

1) Distrust, disrespect, and animosity pertain to which component of indirect costs associated with mismanaged organizational stress?

A. Quality of work relations

B. Participation and membership

C. Performance on the job

D. Communication breakdowns

 

 

2) Inventory shrinkages and accidents pertain to which component of direct costs associated with mismanaged organizational stress?

A. Employee conflict

B. Performance on the job

C. Loss of vitality

D. Communication breakdowns

 

 

3) Thousands of equal-pay lawsuits have been filed, predominantly by ___________ since the Equal Pay Act of 1963 was passed

A. women

B. African Americans

C. the elderly

D. Americans with disabilities

 

 

4) What term refers to those actions appropriate to overcome the effects of past or present policies, practices, or other barriers to equal employment opportunity?

A. Reparation

B. Emancipation

C. Desegregation

D. Affirmative action

 

 

5) In the employment context, _______________ can be viewed broadly as giving an unfair advantage or disadvantage to the members of a particular group in comparison with the members of other groups

A. ethnocentrism

B. discrimination

C. seniority system

D. race norming

 

 

6) Thousands of equal-pay suits have been filed, predominantly by ___________ since the Equal Pay Act of 1963 was passed

A. women

B. African Americans

C. the elderly

D. Americans with disabilities

 

 

 

7) Which of the following observations is correct?

A. Diversity is problem focused, and affirmative action is opportunity focused

B. Diversity is government initiated, and affirmative action is voluntary

C. Diversity is proactive, and affirmative action is reactive

D. Diversity is quantitative, and affirmative action is qualitative

 

 

8) Which of the following would you associate with managing diversity?

A. Government initiated

B. Assumes integration

C. Internally focused

D. Quantitative

 

 

9) “To be the world’s best quick-service restaurant” is an example of what?

A. Organizational charter

B. Standard operating procedure

C. Code of ethics

D. Vision statement

 

 

10) _________ is a job analysis method that lists tasks or behaviors and involves workers rating each task or behavior in terms of whether or not it is performed. If the task is performed, workers also rate the frequency, importance, level of difficulty, and relationship to overall performance

A. Job performance

B. Structured questionnaires

C. Interviews

D. Critical incidents

 

 

11) Recruitment begins by specifying _____, which are the typical results of job analysis and workforce planning activities

A. human resource requirements

B. strategic imperatives

C. succession plans

D. affirmative action candidates

 

 

12) The step following recruitment is _____, which is basically a rapid, rough selection process

A. an orientation

B. an initial screening

C. a suspension

D. a workforce plan

 

 

13) During the _____ stage, it is most important to select the managers who can develop stable management systems to preserve the gains achieved during the embryonic stage

A. mature

B. high-growth

C. aging

D. embryonic

 

14) Increasing an individual’s employability outside the company simultaneously increases his or her job security and desire to stay with the current employer. What is this known as?

A. Training paradox

B. Pygmalion effect

C. Distributed practice

D. Massed practice

 

 

15) Which is a characteristic of the most effective training practices?

A. Training starts at the bottom of the organization

B. Training is part of the corporate culture

C. Training is evaluated by checking participant reactions

D. Little time is spent assessing training needs

 

 

16) Which analysis is helpful in determining the special needs of a particular group, such as older workers, women, or managers at different levels?

A. Individual

B. Operations

C. Demographic

D. Organization

 

 

17) Providing adequate resources to get a job done right and on time, and paying careful attention to selecting employees, are parts of

A. employee welfare

B. grievance management

C. performance appraisal

D. performance facilitation

 

 

18) This can be thought of as a compass that indicates a person’s actual direction as well as a person’s desired direction.

A. Management by objectives

B. Forced distribution

C. Central tendency

D. Performance management

 

 

19) What would you call a meeting that is typically done once a year to identify and discuss job-relevant strengths and weaknesses of individuals or work teams?

A. performance appraisal

B. performance facilitation

C. performance encouragement

D. performance standard

 

 

20) When managing careers, what should organizations do?

A. Plan for shorter employment relationships

B. Focus primarily on employee needs and aspirations

C. Allow employees to structure work assignments

D. Focus on and recognize career stages that employees go through

21) A sequence of positions occupied by a person during the course of a lifetime is characteristic of what type of career?

A. Subjective

B. Objective

C. Specific

D. General

 

 

22) In the new world of career management, the primary goal is to provide which of the following for employees?

A. Rising aspirations

B. Executive ranking

C. Psychological success

D. Time off when they need it

 

 

23) At a broad level, _____ includes anything an employee values and desires that an employer is able and willing to offer in exchange for employee contributions

A. a competency-based pay system

B. an employee stock ownership plan

C. an organizational reward system

D. a merit-pay method

 

 

24) This benefit, tied mostly to profitability and promising better job security, but not guaranteeing it, is at the center of the evolving bonus system

A. Contribution-based pay

B. Competency-based pay

C. Skill-based pay

D. Flexible pay

 

 

25) Financial rewards include direct payments plus indirect payments in the form of what?

A. Individual equity

B. Corporate compensation

C. Spot awards

D. Employee benefits

 

 

26) Which law offers full coverage for retirees, dependent survivors, and disabled persons insured by 40 quarters of payroll taxes on their past earnings or earnings of heads of households?

A. Federal Unemployment Tax Act

B. Social Security Act

C. Workers’ compensation

D. Employee Retirement Income Security Act

 

 

27) Plans are known as _____ when the employees share in the cost of the premiums

A. share-based

B. contributory

C. distributive

D. peer participating

28) Which type of justice refers to the quality of interpersonal treatment that employees receive in their everyday work?

A. Interactional

B. Informational

C. Distributive

D. Blind

 

 

29) Procedural justice affects citizenship behaviors by influencing employees’ perceptions of _____, the extent to which the organization values employees’ general contributions and cares for their well being.

A. due process

B. management accessibility

C. indirect compensation

D. organizational support

 

 

30) When companies discover they can communicate better with their customers through employees who are similar to their customers, those companies then realize they have increased their _____ diversity.

A. primary

B. secondary

C. internal

D. external

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

BUS 475 Final Exam 7

BUS 475 Final Exam 7 A+++

 

1) A well-designed activity-based costing system starts with __________.

A. computing the activity-based overhead rate

B. assigning manufacturing overhead costs for each activity cost pool to products

C. analyzing the activities performed to manufacture a product

D. identifying the activity-cost pools

 

2) Managerial accounting __________.

A. is governed by generally accepted accounting principles

B. pertains to the entity as a whole and is highly aggregated

C. places emphasis on special-purpose information

D. is concerned with costing products

 

3) What effect do current technology changes have on managerial accounting?

A. Increase in product costs

B. Reduction of emphasis on the value chain

C. Reduction of reporting costs of managerial accounting information

D. Creation of the middleman

 

4) The income statement and balance sheet columns of Pine Company’s worksheet reflects the following totals: 

Income Statement      Balance Sheet

Dr.                  Cr.                   Dr.                  Cr.

Totals              $58,000           $48,000           $34,000           $44,000
The net income (or loss) for the period is __________.

A. $10,000 income

B. not determinable

C. $10,000 loss

D. $48,000 income

 

 

5) “Generally accepted” in the phrase generally accepted accounting principles means that the principles __________.

A. have substantial authoritative support

B. have been approved for use by the managements of business firms

C. have been approved by the Internal Revenue Service

D. are proven theories of accounting

 

6) If a company reports a net loss, it __________.

A. will not be able to pay cash dividends

B. will not be able to make capital expenditures

C. will not be able to get a loan

D. may still have a net increase in cash

 

7) H55 Company sells two products, beer and wine. Beer has a 10 percent profit margin and wine has a 12 percent profit margin. Beer has a 27 percent contribution margin and wine has a 25 percent contribution margin. If other factors are equal, which product should H55 push to customers?

A. Wine

B. It should sell an equal quantity of both

C. Selling either results in the same additional income for the company

D. Beer

 

8) The first step in activity-based costing is to __________.

A. compute the activity-based overhead rate per cost driver

B. identify the cost driver that has a strong correlation to the activity cost pool

C. identify and classify the major activities involved in the manufacture of specific products

D. assign manufacturing overhead costs for each activity cost pool to products

 

9) Which one of the following items is not generally used in preparing a statement of cash flows?

A. Comparative balance sheets

B. Adjusted trial balance

C. Current income statement

D. Additional information

 

10) What exists when budgeted costs exceed actual results?

A. A favorable difference

B. A budgeting error

C. An unfavorable difference

D. An excess profit

 

11) Which list below best describes the major services performed by public accountants?

A. Employee training, auditing, bookkeeping

B. Bookkeeping, mergers, budgets

C. Auditing, taxation, management consulting

D. Cost accounting, production scheduling, recruiting

 

12) The cost of an asset and its fair market value are __________.

A. the same when the asset is sold

B. never the same

C. irrelevant when the asset is used by the business in its operations

D. the same on the date of acquisition

 

13) Sam’s Used Cars uses the specific identification method of costing inventory. During March, Sam purchased three cars for $6,000, $7,500, and $9,750, respectively. During March, two cars are sold for $9,000 each. Sam determines that at March 31, the $9,750 car is still on hand. What is Sam’s gross profit for March?

A. $4,500

B. $5,250

C. $750

D. $8,250

 

14) A company just starting in business purchased three merchandise inventory items at the following prices. First purchase $80; Second purchase $95; Third purchase $85. If the company sold two units for a total of $240 and used FIFO costing, the gross profit for the period would be _____.

A. $75

B. $65

C. $60

D. $50

 

15) Lucy starts her own psychiatric practice, but her expenditures to open the practice exceed her income. Lucy is a __________.

A. saver who supplies money to the financial system

B. saver who demands money from the financial system

C. borrower who demands money from the financial system

D. borrower who supplies money to the financial system

 

16) Which of the following statements about GDP is correct?

A. Money continuously flows from households to government and then back to households, and GDP measures this flow of money.

B. GDP measures two things at once: the total income of everyone in the economy and the unemployment rate.

C. GDP is to a nation’s economy as household income is to a household.

D. GDP increases if the total population increases.

 

17) A logical starting point from which the study of international trade begins is __________.

A. the recognition that government intervention in markets sometimes enhances the economic welfare of the society

B. the recognition that not all markets are competitive

C. the principle of absolute advantage

D. the principle of comparative advantage

 

18) In computing GDP, market prices are used to value final goods and services because __________.

A. market prices do not change much over time, so it is easy to make comparisons between years

B. market prices reflect the values of goods and services

C. if market prices are out of line with how people value goods, the government sets price ceilings and price floors

D. Market prices are not used in computing GDP

 

19) Maurice receives $100 as a birthday gift. In deciding how to spend the money, he narrows his options down to four choices: Option A, Option B, Option C, and Option D. Each option costs $100. Finally he decides on Option B. The opportunity cost of this decision is __________.

A. the value to Maurice of Options A, C and D combined

B. $100

C. $300

D. the value to Maurice of the option he would have chosen had Option B not been available

 

20) To move the allocation of resources closer to the social optimum, policymakers should typically try to induce firms in an oligopoly to __________.

A. form various degrees of cartels

B. compete rather than cooperate with each other

C. cooperate rather than compete with each other

D. collude with each other

 

21) Resources are __________.

A. plentiful for households but scarce for economies

B. scarce for households and scarce for economies

C. plentiful for households and plentiful for economies

D. scarce for households but plentiful for economies

 

22) Many U.S. business leaders argue that the current state of U.S. net exports is the result of __________.

A. free trade policies of foreign governments.

B. unproductive U.S. workers.

C. unfair foreign competition.

D. U.S. export subsidies.

 

23) The balance of payment account is made up of:

A. an import account and an export account.

B. an investment account and a consumption account.

C. a monetary account and a fiscal account.

D. a current account and a financial and capital account.

 

24) Real GDP __________.

A. evaluates current production at the prices that prevailed in some specific year in the past.

B. is not a valid measure of the economy’s performance, since prices change from year to year.

C. is a measure of the value of goods only; it excludes the value of services.

D. evaluates current production at current prices.

 

25) The model of aggregate demand and aggregate supply explains the relationship between __________.

A. unemployment and output

B. wages and employment

C. real GDP and the price level

D. the price and quantity of a particular good

 

26) Edward Prescott and Finn Kydland won the Nobel Prize in Economics in 2004. One of their contributions was to argue that if a central bank could convince people to expect zero inflation, then the Fed would be tempted to raise output by increasing inflation. This possibility is known as __________.

A. the monetary policy reaction lag

B. the sacrifice ratio dilemma

C. the time inconsistency of policy

D. inflation targeting

 

27) Over the past two decades, the United States has __________.

A. had trade deficits in about as many years as it has trade surpluses.

B. persistently had a trade surplus.

C. persistently had a trade deficit.

D. generally had, or been very near to a trade balance.

 

28) ABC International carefully watches the actions of its most innovative competitor and learns from them. ABC can establish a low-cost position by:

A. Producing an imitation of the new technology that utilizes lower-quality and lower-cost materials

B. Technology followers are not successful at low-cost strategies

C. Mass-producing products that have an established market niche

D. Making subtle changes to the product, thereby avoiding patent restrictions

E. Learning from the leader thereby avoiding the costs and risks of technology leadership

 

29) A leader is:

A. The top level manager in a firm or business

B. Someone well-respected by others

C. Someone who influences others to attain goals

D. Someone with authority over others

E. A strategic level manager

 

30) The pursuit of lucrative opportunities by enterprising individuals is called:

A. Independence

B. Social experimentation

C. Entrepreneurship

D. Intrapreneurship

E. Business incubating

 

31) A series of quality standards developed by a committee working under the International Organization for Standardization to improve total quality in all businesses for the benefit of both producers and consumers is:

A. Just-in-time control (JIT)

B. Customer-based integration

C. Computer-integrated manufacturing (CIM)

D. Total quality management

E. ISO 9000

 

32) A manager’s ability to stimulate people to be high performers is referred to as:

A. Organizing

B. Planning

C. Leading

D. Controlling

E. Supervising

 

33) An invisible barrier that makes it difficult for certain groups, such as minorities and women, to move beyond a certain level in the organizational hierarchy is referred to as the:

A. Glass ceiling

B. Black box theory

C. Job enrichment theory

D. Job enlargement concept

E. Glass floor

 

34) The Aquatic Center, Inc. periodically reviews the goals of the company. During the process, The Aquatic Center managers analyze their current strategies as compared to their competitors, determine goals that they will pursue and decide upon specific actions for each area of the company to take in pursuit of these goals. The Aquatic Center managers have been engaged in the management function of:

A. Planning

B. Organizing

C. Goal Coordination

D. Controlling

E. Staffing

 

35) Which of these refers to the practices aimed at discovering and harnessing an organization’s intellectual resources?

A. Knowledge management

B. Innovation

C. Competitiveness

D. Effectiveness

E. Collaboration

 

36) Which of these represent skills that managers need?

A. Technical, interpersonal & communication and conceptual & decision making

B. Professional, technical and interpersonal & communication

C. Conceptual & decision making, professional and technical

D. Interpersonal, quantitative, and professional

E. Interpersonal & communication, conceptual & decision making and professional

 

37) Teams that work on long-term projects but disband once the work is completed are known as:

A. Management teams

B. Traditional work groups

C. Project and development teams

D. Transnational teams

E. Parallel teams

 

38) Building a dynamic organization is another way of describing which function of management?

A. Organizing

B. Leading

C. Controlling

D. Staffing

E. Planning

 

39) When a company establishes technology leadership by pioneering unique products or services that command premium prices, it has benefited from a:

A. High-price strategy

B. Low-cost strategy

C. Diversification strategy

D. Differentiation strategy

E. High-cost strategy

 

40) The most dominant areas in the global economy include: 

A. North America, Mexico and Asia

B. North America, South America and Western Europe

C. North America, Asia and Africa

D. Western Europe, Asia and Africa

E. North America, Western Europe and Asia

 

41) Listening to employee suggestions, gaining support for organizational objectives and fostering an atmosphere of teamwork are all considered:

A. Interpersonal/communication skills

B. Diagnostic skills

C. Professional skills

D. Conceptual

E. Technical skills

 

42) Twelve randomly-chosen students were asked how many times they had missed class during a certain semester, with this result: 2, 1, 5, 1, 1, 3, 4, 3, 1, 1, 5, 18. 
For this sample, the median is _____.

A. 3.5

B. 3

C. 2

D. 2.5

 

43) A poll showed that 48 out of 120 randomly chosen graduates of California medical schools last year intended to specialize in family practice. What is the width of a 90% confidence interval for the proportion that plan to specialize in family practice?

A. ± .00329

B. ± .07357

C. ± .04472

D. ± .08765

 

44) William used a sample of 68 U.S. cities to estimate the relationship between Crime (annual property crimes per 100,000 persons) and Income (median income per capita). His estimated regression equation was Crime = 428 + .050 Income. 
Which outcomes would be likely in a bivariate regression on 45 randomly chosen U.S. cities in 2005 with
of robberies in each city (thousands of robberies) and
of police force in each city (thousands of police)?

A. Positive slope (due to city size).

B. High R2 (due to city size).

C. Autocorrelation.

D. No correlation.

 

45) In a random sample of 810 women employees, it is found that 81 would prefer working for a female boss. The width of the 95% confidence interval for the proportion of women who prefer a female boss is _____.

A. ± .0196

B. ± .0105

C. ± .0288

D. ± .0207

 

46) Independent events A and B would be consistent with which of the following statements:

A. P (A) = .3, P (B) = .5, P (A B) = .4

B. P (A) = .4, P (B) = .3, P (A B) = .5

C. P (A) = .5, P (B) = .4, P (A B) = .3

D. P (A) = .4, P (B) = .5, P (A B) = .2

 

47) Twelve randomly-chosen students were asked how many times they had missed class during a certain semester, with this result: 2, 1, 5, 1, 1, 3, 4, 3, 1, 1, 5, 18. 
For this sample, the standard deviation is approximately _____.

A. 3.03

B. 4.55

C. 4.75

D. 3.75

 

48) In lean systems, if a defective product is found, which of the following is generally NOT done?

A. The defective unit is passed on to the next workstation.

B. The defective unit is returned to the worker responsible for creating the defect. 

C. The production line is made aware of the problem without stopping the line. 

D. The production line is stopped.

 

49) In a network diagram, an activity:

A. is the smallest unit of work effort consuming both time and resources that a project manager can schedule and control.

B. must always have a single, precise estimate for the time duration.

C. should always be something the company has had experience with.

D. is the largest unit of work effort consuming both time and resources that a project manager can schedule and control.

 

50) Which is not a tool of statistical quality control?

A. Pareto chart

B. Deming chart

C. Attribute control chart

D. Fishbone diagram

 

51) A computer analysis reveals that the best-fitting trend model is Yt = 4.12 e 0.987 t. The trend was fitted using year-end common stock prices for Melodic Kortholt Outlet for the last six years. The R2 is 0.8571. 

If we fit a linear trend to data that are growing exponentially __________.

A. at the end of year 3 the stock price would be nearly $80

B. the absolute annual growth (in dollars per share) is increasing

C. few investments could match the astounding growth rate

D. the stock’s true intrinsic value is $4.12

 

52) The one-worker, multiple machines approach functions as:

A. a production bottleneck.

B. a way to create uniform workstation loads.

C. a poka-yoke device.

D. a one-person production line.

 

53) Zappos built the majority of its information systems using which of the following?

A. Proprietary software

B. Free software

C. Consultants

D. Open source software

E. Vendor software

 

54) Search engines and metasearch engines are examples of which network application?

A. Communications

B. Web services

C. Local Area Network

D. Collaboration

E. Discovery

 

55) In the _____ phase of the decision making process, managers test potential solutions “on paper.”

A. choice

B. consideration

C. implementation

D. intelligence

E. design

 

56) The costs of delivering products in the _____ channel are much higher than delivering products in the _____ channel.

A. digital, e-commerce

B. physical, digital

C. e-commerce, digital

D. physical, financial

E. digital, physical

 

57) _____ is the integration of economic, social, cultural, and ecological facets of life, enabled by information.

A. nationalization

B. business environment

C. regionalization

D. globalization

 

58) Which of the following are not provided by digital dashboards?

A. Transaction processing

B. Exception reporting

C. Drill down

D. Key performance indicators

E. Status access

 

59) A company wants to use data from past promotional mailings to identify people who would likely respond favorably to future mailings. This company would most likely use _____.

A. multidimensional data analysis

B. data mining

C. structured query language

D. expert systems

E. neural networks

 

60) Credit card companies would most likely use which of the following to check for fraudulent credit card use?

A. Data mining

B. Expert systems

C. Neural networks

D. Multidimensional data analysis

E. Structured query language

 

61) Computer support is greatest for which of the following problems?

A. Unstructured and operational control

B. Structured and management control

C. Semistructured and strategic planning

D. Semistructured and management control

E. Structured and operational control

 

62) International Game Technology’s new ERP system produced all of the following benefits except:

A. Company was able to maintain its original business processes

B. Operations employees were able to access manufacturing process details at their workstations

C. Integrated the company’s business functions

D. The company gained flexibility in manufacturing products

E. ERP system connected the company’s global operations

 

63) Disadvantages of using current liabilities as opposed to long-term debt include:

A. uncertainty of future liabilities

B. greater risk of illiquidity, and uncertainty of interest costs

C. decreased risk of liquidity

D. higher cash flow exposure

E. certainty of interest costs

 

64) Suppose you determine that the NPV of a project is $1,525,855. What does that mean?

A. The project would add value to the firm.

B. In all cases, investing in this project would be better than investing in a project that has an NPV of $850,000.

C. Under all conditions, the project’s payback would be less than the profitability index.

D. The project’s IRR would have to be less that the firm’s discount rate.

 

65) An increase in future value can be caused by an increase in the __________.

A. starting value

B. annual interest rate and number of compounding periods

C. rate of return

D. original amount invested

E. dividends paid

 

66) Dublin International Corporation’s marginal tax rate is 40%. It can issue three-year bonds with a coupon rate of 8.5% and par value of $1,000. The bonds can be sold now at a price of $938.90 each. The underwriters will charge $23 per bond in flotation costs. Determine the approximate after-tax cost of debt for Dublin International to use in a capital budgeting analysis.

A. 6.0%

B. 5.1%

C. 8.5%

D. 9.2%

 

67) A stock with a beta greater than 1.0 has returns that are _____ volatile than the market, and a stock with a beta of less than 1.0 exhibits returns which are _____ volatile than those of the market portfolio.

A. more, less

B. more, more

C. less, more

D. less, less

 

68) At 8% compounded annually, how long will it take $750 to double?

A. 48 months

B. 6.5 years

C. 9 years

D. 12 years

 

69) Petrified Forest Skin Care, Inc. pays an annual perpetual dividend of $1.70 per share. If the stock is currently selling for $21.25 per share, what is the expected rate of return on this stock?

A. 12.5%

B. 8.0%

C. 13.6%

D. 36.13%

 

70) Exchange rate risk:

A. applies only to certain types of domestic businesses.

B. has been phased out due to recent international legislation.

C. doesn’t affect trades made in US Dollars.

D. arises from the fact that the spot exchange rate on a future date is a random variable.

 

71) According to the hedging principle, permanent assets should be financed with _____ liabilities.

A. spontaneous

B. current

C. fixed

D. permanent

 

72) PepsiCo calculates unlevered betas for each peer group in order to:

A. eliminate competitive factors.

B. eliminate judgment factors.

C. eliminate different financial risks.

D. eliminate different business risks.

 

73) If the quote for a forward exchange contract is greater than the computed price, the forward contract is:

A. undervalued.

B. a good buy.

C. at equilibrium.

D. overvalued.

 

74) Bondholders have a priority claim on assets ahead of:

A. shareholders.

B. investors

C. creditors.

D. common and preferred stockholders.

 

75) The common stockholders are most concerned with:

A. the size of the firm’s beginning earnings per share.

B. the risk of the investment.

C. the spread between the return generated on new investments and the investor’s required rate of return.

D. the percentage of profits retained.

 

76) Regarding organizational buying, the people who have the power to select or approve the supplier–especially for larger purchases–are called:

A. deciders.

B. gatekeepers.

C. influencers.

D. buyers.

E. users.

 

77) “Marketing strategy planning” means:

A. finding attractive opportunities and selecting a target market.

B. selecting an attractive marketing mix.

C. finding attractive opportunities and developing profitable marketing strategies.

D. selecting an attractive target market.

E. selecting a target market and developing a marketing strategy.

 

78) A cluster analysis of the “toothpaste market” would probably show that:

A. most consumers are mainly concerned about brightness of teeth.

B. different market segments seek different product benefits.

C. the broad product-market can be served effectively with one marketing mix.

D. factors such as taste, price, and “sex appeal” are not important.

E. most consumers are concerned about cost.

 

79) When doing “positioning,” a marketing manager should:

A. focus on specific product features of all generic competitors.

B. plan physical product changes rather than image changes.

C. avoid targeting strategies.

D. rely on how customers think about proposed and/or existing brands in a market.

E. exclusively use focus groups.

 

80) Economists’ economic-buyer theory assumes that __________.

A. buyers logically compare choices in order to maximize their satisfaction

B. consumers always make rational decisions

C. demographic data are very useful for predicting consumer behavior

D. consumers should purchase only low-priced products

E. consumers only want the cheapest price

 

81) The managerial process of developing and maintaining a match between the resources of an organization and its market opportunities is called:

A. marketing programming.

B. strategic (management) planning.

C. management by objective.

D. marketing strategy planning.

E. market planning.

 

82) When evaluating macro-marketing:

A. the best approach is to consider the profit generated by individual firms within the overall system.

B. one must consider the society’s role in the marketing system.

C. the evaluation is necessarily subjective.

D. one must determine how efficiently the society’s resources are used.

E. one must consider each individual firm’s role in the marketing system.

 

83) “Positioning”:

A. helps strategy planners see how customers view competitors’ offerings.

B. eliminates the need for judgment in strategy planning.

C. applies to new products–but not existing products.

D. is concerned with obtaining the best shelf space in retail outlets.

E. is useful for combining but not for segmenting.

 

84) Coca-Cola is taking advantage of the new willingness of Chinese leaders to engage in international trade by marketing its soft drinks in China. What type of opportunity is Coke pursuing?

A. diversification

B. test marketing

C. market development

D. product development

E. market penetration

 

85) In comparison to the buying of final consumers, the purchasing of organizational buyers:

A. is always based on competitive bids from multiple suppliers.

B. is always emotional.

C. is strictly economic and not at all emotional.

D. leans basically toward economy, quality, and dependability.

E. is even less predictable.

 

86) The basic objective of the U.S. market-directed economic system is to:

A. satisfy consumer needs as they–the consumers–see them.

B. minimize inflation.

C. achieve an annual growth rate of at least 10 percent.

D. provide each person with an equal share of the economic output.

E. make the most efficient use of the country’s resources.

 

87) The clustering techniques that can be used in segmenting:

A. group people together into heterogeneous product-market segments.

B. eliminate the need for management intuition and judgment.

C. group people together based on age.

D. try to find similar patterns within sets of data.

E. looks for differences between groups of people.

 

88) Which of the following terms need not be disclosed under Truth-in-Lending Act?

A. The cash price of the product.

B. The annual percentage rate (APR).

C. The total finance charge.

D. The terms available from competitors.

E. Amount of payments.

 

89) The tort of intentional interference with contractual relations requires the following except:

A. Third-party knowledge of this contract.

B. A valid, enforceable contract between the contracting parties.

C. A new contract involving the third party who induced the breach.

D. Third-party inducement to breach the contract.

 

90) Which of the following is correct about litigating commercial disputes?

A. Commercial disputes, because of their specialized nature, are first heard at the appellate court level.

B. Nearly all states have specialized trial courts that hear commercial disputes.

C. Businesses generally dislike the concept of specialized trail courts for commercial disputes because the large numbers of consumers who sue businesses in these courts have led the judges to become generally biased against business.

D. A few states have established specialized trial courts for commercial disputes.

E. In all states, commercial disputes must be heard in a limited-jurisdiction court.

 

91) Which of the following activities by an administrative agency requires public notice and participation?

A. Substantive rule making and interpretive rule making only.

B. Substantive rule making only.

C. Statements of policy only.

D. Substantive rule making and statements of policy only.

E. Substantive rule making, interpretive rule making, and statements of policy.

 

92) What type of commercial speech did the U.S. Supreme Court say was protected in the Greater New Orleans Broadcasting Association, Inc. v. United States case?

A. Obscene speech.

B. Information on gambling and lotteries.

C. Information on how to build a bomb.

D. Information about child pornography.

 

93) Which of the following lists, in descending priority, of sources considered by most courts in settling questions of international law?

A. Treaties, customs, general principles of law, judicial decisions and teachings

B. Conventions, comity, customs, general principles of law

C. Treaties, customs, conventions, comity

D. Conventions, treaties, comity, customs

E. Treaties, customs, conventions, comity

 

94) Information which comes to the knowledge of an agent is:

A. Is imputed to the principal.

B. Can be disclosed to the principal only with the third party’s consent.

C. Will result in termination of the agency arrangement if it is not communicated to the principal.

D. Required to be communicated to the principal in all circumstances.

 

95) A professional corporation is one that:

A. Has been in existence long enough to reasonably assure that it will be profitable in the near future.

B. Is typically used as a form of doing business by doctors and lawyers.

C. Does not have shareholders.

D. Is formed with the assistance of a lawyer.

 

96) What makes a publicly held corporation different from a public corporation?

A. A publicly held corporation is entitled to limited liability, but a public corporation is not.

B. A publicly held corporation must have a charitable purpose, but a public corporation need not have a charitable purpose.

C. They are two terms that have the same meaning.

D. A publicly held corporation has many shareholders rather than being a corporation owned by a governmental entity.

 

97) A “closely held corporation” is a corporation that is owned by:

A. The government.

B. A few shareholders, usually family members.

C. A nonprofit organization.

D. A large number of members of the public.

 

98) One study found that manufacturing labor costs about _____ an hour in China, compared to _____ dollars in the United States.

A. About $2; about 15

B. $2; about 25

C. Less than $1; about 15

D. Less than $1; about 40

E. Less than $1; about 25

 

99) Which country does the text describe as becoming the largest producer and consumer of many of the world’s goods?

A. Canada

B. China

C. Japan

D. Ecuador

E. Mexico

 

100) Although the U.S. has had a longstanding agreement with _____ after the passage of NAFTA, _____ became the United States’ second largest trading partner.

A. Canada, Mexico

B. Mexico, Venezuela

C. Canada, Venezuela

D. Great Britain, Paraguay

E. Mexico, Canada

 

Sports in Society Unit VI

Sports in Society ( Unit VI )

 

DUE DATE:  FEB 24, 2015

 

1.  Your friend says that sports have sold out to the media and that television has corrupted 

 

sports.  She argues that sports have changed over the past 40 years and that the changes are 

 

caused by television.  You say that she is jumping to conclusions, and she wants you to explain 

 

your point.  Use material from this unit to respond to this argument.  Your response should be at 

 

least 200 words in length. You are required to at least use your textbook as

 

source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; 

 

paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.

 

2.  Transnational corporations are using sports as vehicles for global expansion to a greater 

 

degree than ever before.  Why do these large corporations see sports and sport sponsorships as 

 

important in their growth?  Are they interested only in immediate profits or do they have other 

 

goals as well?  If so, what are those goals?  Your response should be at least 200 words in 

 

length.  You are required to at least use your textbook as source material for your response.  All 

 

sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must 

 

have accompanying citations.

 

3.  In the midst of a major economic recession in the U.S., cities and states are obligated to pay 

 

off bonds that were used to build stadiums for men’s professional sport teams.  Politicians say 

 

that these subsidies continue to make sense for the overall good of the city and state.  Do you 

 

agree or disagree?  Explain your reasons.  Your response should be at least 200 words in length. 

 

You are required to at least use your textbook as source material for your response.  All sources 

 

used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have 

 

accompanying citations.

 

4.  Distinguish between the characteristics of the role of sports announcer in television and radio 

 

and sportswriters in newspapers, magazines, and the Internet.  Your response should be at least 

 

200 words in length.  You are required to at least use your textbook as source material for your 

 

response.  All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted 

 

material must have accompanying citations.

MGT 311 Final Exam

MGT 311 Final Exam 

Rating A

 

1) In her work in the publishing industry, Vera seeks out new authors whom she considers promising. In the past 2 years she has found a number of new writers whose work she thought was exceptional, and immersed herself in the task of helping them shape their manuscripts for submission to her managers for publishing. Although she was extremely proud of the results, none of the authors she worked with were chosen for publication. Vera believes that the decision not to publish these authors was based on personal rivalries within management, rather than the quality of her writers’ work. She is extremely frustrated, dreads coming into work each morning, and is seriously thinking of resigning. How can Vera’s job attitude best be described?            

A. Low job satisfaction and low job involvement

B. High job satisfaction and low job involvement

C. Low job satisfaction and high job involvement

D. High job satisfaction and high job involvement

 

 2) Julia works as a receptionist at a real-estate company. Her boss just came in the door and yelled at her, telling her that the front office was a mess and that she needed to get up and clean it immediately. After her boss left the room, Julia grabbed three magazines and violently slammed them into the trash can. Which of the following best describes Julia’s action?           

 A.  An affect

 B.  A thought

 C.  A mood

 D.  An emotion

 

3) Erin works on a software help desk. After being yelled at by a customer about the state of her company’s software, she becomes angry, and has to take a short break to calm down. What makes her anger an emotion, rather than a mood?           

a.             It is a simple, unambiguous feeling.

b.             It interferes with her capacity to work effectively.

c.             It has a contextual stimulus.

d.             It can be controlled given some time.

 

 4) Any incompatibility between two or more attitudes or between behavior and attitudes results in what?

a.             organizational dissonance

b.             cognitive dissonance

c.             attitudinal clarification

d.             values clarification

 

 5) What is the degree to which a person identifies with his or her job, actively participates in it, and considers his or her performance as being important to self-worth?           

a. Job satisfaction

b. Job involvement

c. Job stability

d. Job enrichment

 

6) What term is used for those emotions that an organization requires workers to show and considers appropriate for a given job?    

   a.     Felt emotions

   b.        Required emotions

   c.       Conditional emotions

   d.       Displayed emotions

 

 7) Janet needs to assign a very important advertising account to one of her writers. First she reviewed each writers work load, then she studied the sales data of the products for the last three campaigns of each writer, then she reviewed each writer’s annual review to familiarize herself with their goals. Finally, she gave the account to Paula, a very creative, efficient writer who has had high sales results with her last three clients’ products. What is Janet’s management style is based on?

a) organizational behavioral studies

b) substantive evidence approach

c) preconceived notions

d) systematic study

 

8) Basing managerial methods on the best available scientific evidence is called what?                 

A. Systematic study

B. Organizational behavior

C. Evidence-based management

D. Conceptual management           

 

9) The manager at a construction site observes that he is spending a great deal of time interviewing prospective employees. This is due to the large amount of absenteeism and turnover among his skilled workers. While questioning exiting employees, he discovers that many of them quit because they feel the work place is too dangerous. In particular, several foremen have stated that the need to get the job done quickly is more important than a few rules, and have gone as far as to mock the courage of workers who question this attitude. What is the best way for the manager to control the deviant behavior of the foremen?         

A. Ordering the foremen to conform with the required safety standards

B.  Finding out why the foremen place a greater importance on finishing the job than on safety

C.  Firing the foremen and promoting new foremen from the current pool of workers

D.  Taking over the work of the foreman himself

 

10) Phil loves sales. He has been a stellar sales person since he was 12. Recently he was awarded a full paid trip for two to Puerto Rico for breaking a company sales record. Phil is so motivated to work, he has set a new goal to break his old record in the coming year. Taking into account self-determination theory, why did the company recognition and award, an extrinsic reward, motivate Phil?             

A. The reward was seen as a coercive method of increasing sales and motivated Phil to prove himself intrinsically.

B.  The reward was imposed to work toward a standard that Phil could not believe in, and his intrinsic motivation suffered.

C.  The reward increased Phil’s sense of competence by providing feedback that improved his intrinsic motivation.

D. The reward increased Phil’s sense of competence by providing feedback that diminished his intrinsic motivation.

 

 11) Tony loves programming. He was on the ground level of the computer revolution. This year his boss has set personal goals for each of the programmers, one of which includes a presentation from each programmer about a project. Tony is very annoyed because he has a tremendous amount of work to do and he will have to spend the weekend, his personal time, preparing the presentation. Taking into account self-determination theory, why did his manager’s goals and the presentation reduce Tony’s motivation?    

A.    The internally imposed goal feels coercive, causing Tony’s intrinsic motivation to suffer.

B.    The self-imposed goal increases his sense of competence, causing the intrinsic motivation to suffer.

C.    The externally imposed goal is an external reward, causing Tony’s intrinsic motivation to increase.

D.    The externally imposed goal feels coercive, causing Tony’s intrinsic motivation to suffer.

 

 12) Glendon has a degree in business and worked for 2 years at an international firm in Spain. When the firm suffered cutbacks and Glendon returned home, he took a job at a nonprofit agency mentoring at-risk Spanish-speaking children. Glendon earns a third of what he earned in the business world, but has decided that his new goal is to acquire a larger case load and continue to use his Spanish to help people. Which theory explains why Glendon is happy with a much smaller external reward for his work?    

A.    Self-imposition of goals

B.    nAch

C.    Self-concordance

D.    Extrinsic motivation

 

 13) Today Marci’s boss entered her cubicle and told her that her work has been fantastic, and that because of her last project the client is going to give the company all of their business. Marci’s boss continued to talk about what a great job she’s doing. When her boss left, Marci felt very confident and satisfied with herself and her job. Marci’s boss uses communication in which of the following functions?    

A.    Motivation

B.    Control

C.    Emotional expression

D.    Information

 

 14) What can managers do to make sure that important information is not withheld from them through silence?

A.    Listen to and support diverse opinions.

B.    Deal with information overload.

C.    Interpret what they see and call it reality.

D.    Tell employees what they want to hear.

 

 15) When Neal Patterson, CEO of Cerner Corporation, sent his seething e-mail to 400 managers, he erred by selecting the wrong

A.    channel for his message

B.    message

C.    distribution

D.    emotional charge

 

 16) Araceli is a team member in a large corporation. She never speaks in the team meetings because she has seen members talk behind each others’ backs outside of the meetings. Members are constantly monitoring the other member’s work, looking for a mistake to point out in a meeting. According to the information provided, which contextual factor is most likely hindering the success of Araceli’s team?  

A.    Adequate resources

B.    Climate of trust

C.    Team structure

D.    Performance evaluations

 

 17) Ayesha is leading a group to develop a prototype for a new product. She has chosen three people to work with her. Ben and Tom are good friends and socialize on the weekend. They are both very creative. Julian is older than Ben and Tom, but they have worked together before and been quite productive. Julian is organized. Ayesha has never worked with any of the men, but knows the product well. She brings the highest level of expertise. Which of the following statements best describes Ayesha’s group?  

A.    High norms, low cohesiveness, high productivity

B.    Low norms, low cohesiveness, low productivity

C.    High norms, high cohesiveness, high productivity

D.    Low norms, high cohesiveness, low productivity

 

 18) Irma does not like a few of the standard operating procedures adapted for the new project. However, she discussed the items with the team and told them that she realized she was in the minority and that she would adapt the new procedures to maintain smooth operations within the team. What is this type of intention called?   

A.    Sacrificing

B.    Accommodating

C.    Collaborating

D.    Compromising

 

19) Angelina feels that her cubicle neighbor talks too loudly on the phone, but in other ways she is a great neighbor. Angelina gets annoyed every time her neighbor’s phone rings, but she has decided it is simply not worth the trouble to talk to her neighbor. What is Angelina’s conflict intention called?

A.    Avoiding

B.    Accommodating

C.    Compromising.

D.    Collaborating

 

20) For process conflict to be productive, it must be   

A.    Kept high

B.    Kept low

C.    Kept at low to moderate levels

D.    Kept at moderate levels

 

 21) The right inherent in a managerial position to give orders and expect orders to be obeyed is termed          

A.    chain of command

B.    authority

C.    power

D.    unity of command

 

 22) ________ are consistent with recent efforts by companies to reduce costs, cut overhead, speed up decision making, increase flexibility, get closer to customers, and empower employees.

A.    Wider spans of control

B.    Narrower spans of control

C.    Matrix structures

D.    Simple structures

 

 23) What is the process through which employees are adapted to an organization’s culture?           

A.    Personalization

B.    Mentoring

C.    Socialization

D.    Institutionalization

 

 24) If there is a basic conflict between the individual’s expectations and the reality of working in an organization, the employee is most likely to be disillusioned and quit during which stage of socialization?      

 A.   Prearrival

 B.   Ritual

 C.   Metamorphosis

 D.   Encounter    

 

 25) When your superior offers you a raise if you will perform additional work beyond the requirements of your job, he or she is exercising ________ power.          

 A.   Legitimate

 B.   Coercive

 C.   Reward

 D.   Personal

 

 26) Political behaviors usually

A.    lie outside of an individual’s specified job performance

B.     are counter productive to individual goals

C.     are seen only in large organizations

D.     are frowned upon by organizational leaders

 

 27) Regardless of the composition of a group, managers can leverage diversity to achieve superior performance by which of the following approaches?         

A.     Emphasize the higher-level similarities among members.

B.     Ensure that everyone knows the importance of diversity in groups.

C.     Explain the legal and ethical implications involved of not having a diverse group.

D.     Focus on the benefits of having a diverse group.

 

28) Effective workforce programs that encourage diversity have three distinct components. First, they inform managers about the legal framework for equal employment opportunities and encourage fair treatment. Second, they teach managers how a diverse workforce will be better able to serve a diverse market of customers and clients. Third, they           

A.     ensure top-level management represents the diversity of its workforce and client base

B.     ensure that certain groups have not been underutilized

C.     generally involve one-shot training sessions that don’t take up an undue amount of time

D.     foster personal development practices that bring out the skills and abilities of all workers

 29) If individuals resisting change are included in making change decisions in an attempt to gain their support, what is this approach called?

 A.   Cooptation

 B.   Exploitation

 C.   Manipulation

 D.   Coercion

30) Which tactic to overcome resistance to change is a relatively easy way to gain the support of adversaries, but may backfire if the targets become aware of the tactic?

 A.    Conciliation

B.    Manipulation

C.     Coercion

D.     Cooperation

 

 

 

M3D2 NS

Module 3

A woman's feet leaving carbon footprints on grass.There has been a great deal of discussion about exactly how we can begin to reduce our greenhouse gas emissions and hopefully reach the levels set for the 2 degree solution. We have all heard about many possible approaches to get industry, communities, and individuals to make the changes we need if we are going to reduce these greenhouse gasses. In this discussion, we are going to examine our “carbon footprints” or “ecological footprints,” compare the scores with each other, and examine ways to reduce our impact on the environment and perhaps save us some money at the same time!

An ecological footprint is an expanded look at the carbon footprint idea. A carbon footprint measures direct consumption of products and resources that come directly from or with fossil fuel consumption, such as your car, your home, and air travel. The ecological footprint digs a bit deeper. “The ecological footprint measures the amount of biologically productive land and water area an individual, a city, a country, a region, or all of humanity uses to produce the resources it consumes and to absorb the waste it generates with today’s technology and resource management practices. Biologically productive land includes areas such as cropland, forest, and fishing grounds, and excludes deserts, glaciers, and the open ocean” (Earth Day Ecological Footprint Calculator, 2016).

Completing this activity will assist you in mastering Module Level Outcome 1.

First:

Calculate one score for your carbon footprint and one score for your ecological footprint from the sites listed below or another you have located that has a calculator and provides a score you can compare.

  • Carbon Footprint site:
    • Climatepath – The calculator appears as #2 across the top third of the page. Click on the “calculate your footprint” link and a simple calculator function drops down on the right hand side of the page. Be sure to record your total footprint in tons before leaving the page, as well as any comparison figures.
  • Ecological Footprint sites (choose one):

Next, post to the Discussion Board:

  1. How do your carbon and ecological footprint scores compare to the averages for the U.S., China, and Europe?
    • You can find these figures about U.S. averages and European averages by a simple search, or you can use these figures:
      1. “An average American’s carbon footprint exceeds 20 tons, which is an astonishing amount. If the CO2 emissions we exhale were made into a solid mass of carbon, we would need 40 trucks – i.e., 1540 tons of carbon, which is 5 times more than a Frenchman and an unimaginable 20 times more than a person that lives in India.” (downloaded 6/2016 from factspy.net)
      2. “The per capita emissions in China increased by 9% in 2011 to reach 7.2 tons per person, only a fraction lower than the EU average of 7.5 tons.” (downloaded 6/2016 from: the guardian.com)
  2. How does your carbon footprint compare to your ecological footprint for the overall score? Do you see a consistent trend, either high or low, in comparison to the U.S. average? Do you see a marked disparity from one of your scores to the other?
  3. Which do you think is a more accurate representation of your energy consumption and greenhouse gas production? Why?
  4. Did you find things that you could do to reduce your scores? What are these things? Do you think you will keep up these efforts in the next few years?

Your initial post responding to this assignment should be no shorter than 250 words. Include both in-text citations and complete APA style references for all the sources you used to inform your work

MAT 540 Week 11 Final Exam

MAT 540 Week 11 Final Exam

 

 

1. Which of the following could be a linear programming objective function?

 

2. Which of the following could not be a linear programming problem constraint?

 

3. Types of integer programming models are _____________

 

4. The production manager for Beer etc. produces 2 kinds of beer: light (L) and dark (D). Two resources used to produce beer are malt and wheat. He can obtain at most 4800 oz of malt per week and at most 3200 oz of wheat per week respectively. Each bottle of light beer requires 12 oz of malt and 4 oz of wheat, while a bottle of dark beer uses 8 oz of malt and 8 oz of wheat.

Profits for light beer are $2 per bottle, and profits for dark beer are $1 per bottle. If the production manager decides to produce of 0 bottles of light beer and 400 bottles of dark beer, it will result in slack of

 

5. The reduced cost (shadow price) for a positive decision variable is 0

TRUE/FALSE

 

6. Decision variables

 

 7. A plant manager is attempting to determine the production schedule of various products to maximize profit. Assume that a machine hour constraint is binding. If the original amount of machine hours available is 200 minutes., and the range of feasibility is from 130 minutes to 340 minutes, providing two additional machine hours will result in the

 

8. Decision models are mathematical symbols representing levels of activity.

TRUE/FALSE

 

9. The integer programming model for a transportation problem has constraints for supply at each source and demand at each destination.

TRUE/FALSE

 

10. In a transportation problem, items are allocated from sources to destinations

 

11. In a media selection problem, the estimated number of customers reached by a given media would generally be specified in the _________________. Even if these media exposure estimates are correct, using media exposure as a surrogate does not lead to maximization of ___.

 

12. ____________ solutions are ones that satisfy all the constraints simultaneously.

 

13. In a linear programming problem, a valid objective function can be represented as

 

14. The standard form for the computer solution of a linear programming problem requires all variables to the right and all numerical values to the left of the inequality or equality sign

TRUE/FALSE

 

15. Constraints representing fractional relationships such as the production quantity of product 1 must be at least twice as much as the production quantity of products 2, 3 and 4 combined cannot be input into computer software packages because the left side of the inequality does not consist of consists of pure numbers.

TRUE/FALSE

 

16. In a balanced transportation model where supply equals demand

 

17. The objective function is a linear relationship reflecting the objective of an operation.

TRUE/FALSE

 

18. The owner of Chips etc. produces 2 kinds of chips: Lime (L) and Vinegar (V). He has a limited amount of the 3 ingredients used to produce these chips available for his next production run: 4800 ounces of salt, 9600 ounces of flour, and 2000 ounces of herbs. A bag of Lime chips requires 2 ounces of salt, 6 ounces of flour, and 1 ounce of herbs to produce; while a bag of Vinegar chips requires 3 ounces of salt, 8 ounces of flour, and 2 ounces of herbs. Profits for a bag of Lime chips are $0.40, and for a bag of Vinegar chips $0.50. Which of the following is not a feasible production combination?

 

19. The linear programming model for a transportation problem has constraints for supply at each source and demand at each destination.

TRUE/FALSE

 

 20. For a maximization problem, assume that a constraint is binding. If the original amount of a resource is 4 lbs., and the range of feasibility (sensitivity range) for this constraint is from

 3 lbs. to 6 lbs., increasing the amount of this resource by 1 lb. will result in the

 

21. In a total integer model, all decision variables have integer solution values.

TRUE/FALSE

 

23. Linear programming is a model consisting of linear relationships representing a firm’s decisions given an objective and resource constraints.

TRUE/FALSE

 

24. When using linear programming model to solve the “diet” problem, the objective is generally to maximize profit.

TRUE/FALSE

 

25. In a balanced transportation model where supply equals demand, all constraints are equalities.

TRUE/FALSE

 

26. In a transportation problem, items are allocated from sources to destinations at a minimum cost.

TRUE/FALSE

 

27. Mallory Furniture buys 2 products for resale: big shelves (B) and medium shelves (M). Each big shelf costs $500 and requires 100 cubic feet of storage space, and each medium shelf costs $300 and requires 90 cubic feet of storage space. The company has $75000 to invest in shelves this week, and the warehouse has 18000 cubic feet available for storage. Profit for each big shelf is $300 and for each medium shelf is $150.  Which of the following is not a feasible purchase combination?

 

28. In a mixed integer model, some solution values for decision variables are integer and others can be non-integer.

TRUE/FALSE

 

29. In a 0 – 1 integer model, the solution values of the decision variables are 0 or 1.

TRUE/FALSE

 

30. Determining the production quantities of different products manufactured by a company based on resource constraints is a product mix linear programming problem.

TRUE/FALSE

 

31. When the right-hand sides of 2 constraints are both increased by 1 unit, the value of the objective function will be adjusted by the sum of the constraints’ prices.

TRUE/FALSE

 

32. The transportation method assumes that

 

33. A constraint is a linear relationship representing a restriction on decision making.

TRUE/FALSE

 

34. When formulating a linear programming model on a spreadsheet, the measure of performance is located in the target cell.

TRUE/FALSE

 

35. The linear programming model for a transportation problem has constraints for supply at each ________ and _________ at each destination.

 

 

36. The 3 types of integer programming models are total, 0 – 1, and mixed.

TRUE/FALSE

 

37. In using rounding of a linear programming model to obtain an integer solution, the solution is

 

 

38. If we use Excel to solve a linear programming problem instead of QM for Windows,

 then the data input requirements are likely to be much less tedious and time consuming.

TRUE/FALSE

 

39. In a _______ integer model, some solution values for decision variables are integer and others can be non-integer.

 

40. Which of the following is not an integer linear programming problem?

 

 

 

 

SCI110 Physical Science

 

Week 9 Assignment 2 – Submit Here

Students, please view the “Submit a Clickable Rubric Assignment” in the Student Center.

Instructors, training on how to grade is within the Instructor Center.

Assignment 2: Global Warming: Cause and Mitigation
Due Week 9 and worth 160 points

Among the most controversial topics in physical science, global warming has received a great deal of attention during the past decade. Given its great impact on both humans and the environment, lawmakers and scientists must heavily weigh the information that they are presented. Explore this debate in more detail by evaluating both the scientific basis of this phenomenon and the human role in global warming.

Write a three to five (3-5) page paper in which you:

  1. Compare and contrast natural versus anthropogenic climate changes. Include at least two (2) specific examples of each.
  2. Take a position as to whether or not global warming is taking place. Provide three (3) lines of evidence to support your position.
  3. Assess two (2) current mitigation strategies for global warming, such as carbon sequestration, carbon taxing, clean coal technology, higher fuel efficiency standards, and so on. Analyze the effectiveness of this mitigation strategy, as well as its potential costs and policy implications.
  4. Speculate on the policy changes that you would propose to help stabilize global climate and determine the business sectors or nations that would be held to more strict standards if you were to implement your proposed policies.
  5. Use at least four (4) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.

Your report must follow these formatting requirements:

  • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Apply concepts in physical sciences to evaluate current trends and issues in the modern world.
  • Describe the physical processes influencing climate and weather.  
  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in physical sciences.
  • Write clearly and concisely about physical sciences using proper writing mechanics